the bible heavily implies that its fine 2 kill non-cristians,what do u think(lookin 4 answers from all religi?

Question

if u dont think it does imply that than read exodus 32:27 before writing ne thing hateful plz, after that say what u want, cuz actually, in my opinion its more than implied it flat out says it

Answer 1

I am a Christian. As for that Scripture try reading all of Exodus 32. It will become more clear if you read the whole thing, instead of picking out one verse and adding your own meaning to it. And in your own question you say "the bible heavily implies that its fine to kill non-Christians." Since when is one verse determined to mean 'heavily'?

Answer 2

You have to realize that it is just a story written by man. A man was the one that said the killing words. But isn't that how christianity made its place anyways??
What do you think the Crusades were? It was christians killing every person who would not renounce their own God and follow Christ. If they did not, they weren't worthy to live.
It is an ongoing practice that is found in all religions throughout history. Wars were waged and still are in other countries. Every one thinks they're right and every one else is going to hell.
Whew, ...I'm glad some of us are tolerant instead of full of hatred or fear.
Blessed be.

Answer 3

My friend - there were no Christians when Ex. 32 was written. In fact there would not be for another 1000+ years.
The using of one verse to support one's position is called proof texting. It is considered somewhat like adding e. coli to one's guest dinner. If you choose to use the Bible, then please do so in the manner identified in the Bible, history, all religions, and popular understanding of argumentive evidentiary proceedings.

Answer 4

You are quoting one verse. Go back to the Bible and read the WHOLE story!, Can you tell me one more? I didn't think so!.