Let's think about what is going on.
First, I am assuming that you mean (-1)^n/(n*sin(n))
For even values of 'n' this will be positive. For odd values of 'n' this will be negative. Therefore, it only converges if 1/(n*sin(n)) goes to zero.
I believe that we can show that for any integer N, we can find a value n>N such that sin(n) < 1/n. If this is true, then n*sin(n) is less than one, so 1/(n*sin(n) is greater than one -- so the sequence does not converge to zero.
I'll leave it up to you to show that you can find sin(n) < 1/n -- but you might want to look at the Taylor's series for 'sin' to find it.
Good luck.
2006-09-18 06:52:20
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answer #1
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answered by Ranto 7
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l'hopital's doesn't give a clear answer. i think it diverges. take the absolute value (to eliminate the numerator). as n increases, there will be values of sin(n) which are "extremely" close to zero, so n*sin(n) will be close to zero, so the quotient will be "large." the numerator and the sign of sine merely whip it from pos to neg but it gets "large."
2006-09-18 14:18:37
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answer #2
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answered by steven o 2
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I think i should be divergent since if u substitute numbers into n, the answer will be smaller n smaller or to infinity.
2006-09-18 13:45:43
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answer #3
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answered by natsuno 1
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divergent because its negative (-1)
2006-09-18 13:43:45
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answer #4
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answered by ford 2
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You are missing a ) somewhere so no one knows your true equation
2006-09-18 13:43:51
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answer #5
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answered by Dennis K 4
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You tell us
2006-09-18 13:37:30
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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