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6 answers

Let's think about what is going on.

First, I am assuming that you mean (-1)^n/(n*sin(n))

For even values of 'n' this will be positive. For odd values of 'n' this will be negative. Therefore, it only converges if 1/(n*sin(n)) goes to zero.

I believe that we can show that for any integer N, we can find a value n>N such that sin(n) < 1/n. If this is true, then n*sin(n) is less than one, so 1/(n*sin(n) is greater than one -- so the sequence does not converge to zero.

I'll leave it up to you to show that you can find sin(n) < 1/n -- but you might want to look at the Taylor's series for 'sin' to find it.

Good luck.

2006-09-18 06:52:20 · answer #1 · answered by Ranto 7 · 0 0

l'hopital's doesn't give a clear answer. i think it diverges. take the absolute value (to eliminate the numerator). as n increases, there will be values of sin(n) which are "extremely" close to zero, so n*sin(n) will be close to zero, so the quotient will be "large." the numerator and the sign of sine merely whip it from pos to neg but it gets "large."

2006-09-18 14:18:37 · answer #2 · answered by steven o 2 · 0 0

I think i should be divergent since if u substitute numbers into n, the answer will be smaller n smaller or to infinity.

2006-09-18 13:45:43 · answer #3 · answered by natsuno 1 · 0 0

divergent because its negative (-1)

2006-09-18 13:43:45 · answer #4 · answered by ford 2 · 0 1

You are missing a ) somewhere so no one knows your true equation

2006-09-18 13:43:51 · answer #5 · answered by Dennis K 4 · 0 0

You tell us

2006-09-18 13:37:30 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

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