by definition \
x*(a+b) = x^a * x^b
but b = 0
x^(a) = x^a * x ^ 0
now devide by x^a on both sides(x cannot be zero)
1 = x^0
proved
2006-09-18 01:15:18
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answer #1
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answered by Mein Hoon Na 7
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Note that even 0^0 = 1. The rule holds even for 0. This isn't an arbitrary definition. It's necessary for exponentiation to work.
The reason this is true is that there is always a 1 implied when you raise a number to another number. The 1 is there to serve as a multiplicative identity. This is known as the "empty product." See the sources below for more details.
That is,
x^3 = 1*x*x*x
x^2 = 1*x*x
x^1 = 1*x
x^0 = 1
And thus,
0^0 = 1
because 1 is the only thing that's left. It's vacuously true. This is important because it lets:
x^y = x^(y+0) = x^y * x^0 = x^y
Without x^0=1, then there would be a contradiction. As you can see, this will hold with x=0 as well, so 0^0 certainly shouldn't be undefined. Thus, 0^0 is defined to be 1. You might argue that 0^0 could be defined to be 0 here, but that definition is not convenient and causes many problems. Many very important identities in mathematics depend upon 0^0=1. (see the quote below for one example) In fact, in order for the series expansion of e^0 to converge to 1 (as it should) then 0^0 must equal 1. As an analysis teacher of mine once said, if 0^0 = 0, the whole universe would collapse to a point (0, in fact).
To quote, "Some textbooks leave the quantity 0^0 undefined, because the functions x^0 and 0^x have different limiting values when x decreases to 0. But this is a mistake. We must define x^0 = 1 for all x, if the binomial theorem is to be valid when x = 0, y = 0, and/or x = ây. The theorem is too important to be arbitrarily restricted! By contrast, the function 0^x is quite unimportant." –– Concrete Mathematics, by Ronald Graham, Donald Knuth, and Oren Patashnik, Addison-Wesley, IBSN 0-21-14236-8, page 162 in the first edition, the chapter on binomial coefficients.
2006-09-18 01:19:38
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answer #2
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answered by Ted 4
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Ok, you got a lot of mathematical solutions. Let me give you a graphical one:
Imagine the graph of the function y = a^x. (a>1)
At x=1, y=a. The graph rises steeply on the right of x=1. But on the left, the graph drops, and as x approaches 0, y approaches 1.
To make it more clear:
a^0.5 = square root of a
a^0.25 = fourth root of a .... and so on.
Since a is a positive no. greater than 1, any root of a should be greater than 1. And as x gets closer and closer to 0, a^x gets smaller and smaller, but not smaller than 1.
So clearly, a^0 = 1.
On the negative side of x-axis, the graph drops gradually from (0,1), reaching y=0 at negative infinity.
For 0
You could check it out using a graphing program such as f(x)-viewer, or advanced grapher,etc. But I'm sure you're bright enough to imagine (or draw) the graph yourself!
2006-09-18 01:43:48
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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All excepted zero. Zero to power of zero is undefined number.
Let's take N, N not null. N ^ 0 = N ^ (1 - 1) = (N ^ 1) / (N ^ 1) = N/N = 1.
Zero is a problem, because at the same time 0 power N (with N not null) is zero. And actually 0 divided by zero is undefined.
2006-09-18 01:16:59
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answer #4
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answered by bloo435 4
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The value of X^0, while X is not equal to zero can be evaluated based on simple division and law of indices, that says X^a/X^a=X^(a-a)=X^0=1.
2006-09-18 01:46:00
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Embliri is correct. But a little complex to read
Y=X^2/X=X
which can be rewritten as
Y=X^(2-1)=X
when both numerator and denominator are raised to same powers,
Y=X/X =1
when rewritten
Y=X^(1-1)=1
Y=X^0=1
Something related:
You know of square roots and cubic roots. For higher we call them as fourth root, fift root etc.
0th root of any number excluding 0 is infinite.
square root can be written as x^(1/2)
Cubic root can be written as x^(1/3)
0th root can be written as x^(1/0)
which is x^(infinite) and is
infinite for all x natural numbers
0 for 0
+or - for all x non zero negative integers.
2006-09-18 01:33:35
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answer #6
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answered by PP 2
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x/x=1 => x*(x^-1)=1 => x^(1-1)=1 => x^0=1
2006-09-18 01:17:09
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answer #7
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answered by paymanns 2
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let a^0=b
transferring to logarithimic form,
0=logb to base a
from rules of logarithims,we know that only log1to any base=o
therefore,we obtain that b=1
substituting,we have that a^0=1
2006-09-18 04:21:52
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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x^(n+1) / x = x^n
when n = 0
x / x = x^0
therefore x^0 = 1
2006-09-18 01:22:08
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answer #9
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answered by alldienow9000 2
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well, I think it is just a rule that was defined years ago. However, there are ways around it.
Take for example this:
(-4^0)=1
-(4^0)=-1
Pretty cool right?
2006-09-18 01:18:59
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answer #10
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answered by sewshawn 3
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