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what year was the final antislavery law passed during the civilwar?

2006-09-17 18:45:20 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Government

4 answers

The Emancipation Proclamation was a presidential order on January 1, 1863 declaring the freedom of all slaves in those areas of the Confederate States of America that had not already returned to Union control. It was not a law passed by a Congress but a proclamation issued by President Abraham Lincoln, based on the war powers given to the President by the Constitution. Its immediate impact was only upon slaves that had already escaped to the Union side, but as the Union armies advanced, hundreds or thousands of slaves were liberated each day — until nearly all 4 million were free by summer 1865. (The border states freed their own slaves, except Kentucky, where some slavery existed until December 1865.) The emancipation was permanently effected by the Thirteenth Amendment ratified in December 1865. The Emancipation Proclamation was never tested in court one way or the other, but no court or legal scholar has questioned its validity.

2006-09-17 18:56:28 · answer #1 · answered by gunslinger08 1 · 0 0

Well, the last state to have an anti-slavery law imposed on it was Kentucky, when the 13th Amendment was ratified by 27 states after Georgia approved it on Dec 6, 1865. On that date, it became the law of the full United States.

Prior to that date, the other states had already abolished slavery.

(It is interesting that six other states - Oregon, California, Florida, Iowa, New Jersey and Texas - ratified the amendment after-the-fact between 1866 and 1870. Delaware ratified it in 1901, and Kentucky in 1976. Finally, in 1976, Mississippi ratified the 13th Amendment.)

2006-09-18 01:58:47 · answer #2 · answered by Tom-SJ 6 · 0 0

You need to look back to 1787 when certain criteria concerning slavery was not tolerated, but later exhilarated quickly into the 1900's and self proclaimed righteous leaders hardened the fact that their help were considered slaves when they were paid wages that couldn't feed a cow, but because wages were offered, it was not coinsidered slavery, until wages were not offered and they worked for food and if you worked for a rich White Man at least you ate good, but that was it.

2006-09-18 01:56:43 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

yr 0

2006-09-18 02:02:49 · answer #4 · answered by jp 6 · 0 0

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