2006-09-17 15:50:48 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
News to me. I thought the US didn't reach that stage until WW1, due to supplying both sides for most of the war, while European, especially British and German economies were hammered. Henry Ford had invented the assembly line and mass production just before the war.
That aside: abundant natural resources, good transport (eg. railways), abundant and cheap labour from all the immigration, and high capital (eg. from the railway barons and stock market).
2006-09-17 21:54:41 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Think about it the other industrial powers after WWII were all bombed to hell and in shambles. The US never had any major shelling of any sort. Canada and Central and South America were just never big economic powers.
2006-09-17 15:59:24 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
That's about as simple as raw materials. The US had/has everything from timber to coal to cotton to iron ore. There's little wonder that entrepreneurs were jumping up and down to exploit it.
2006-09-17 15:57:54 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Could it possibly be because we did not have knucklehead bureaucrats from OSHA, the EPA, and the IRS, around to destroy free market incentive?
2006-09-17 15:59:35 · answer #4 · answered by dragunov 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I am not sure of all the issues here, but:
turn of 20th century was 1901 and we were not such.
2006-09-17 15:57:35 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Capitalism and free enterprise.
2006-09-17 15:59:56 · answer #6 · answered by aviator147 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
survival of the fittest
2006-09-17 15:55:31 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
do your own homework....If you cheated in college like this you would get kicked out permanently. ;-)
2006-09-17 15:52:23 · answer #8 · answered by AC 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋