2006-09-17 14:41:39 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Government
This is an excellent question! Our forefathers knew we had to have an educated populous for two major reasons:
1) Educated public to vote.
2) If a population is educated it is much more difficult to oppress.
As to participation, if everyone is educated and can vote, these freedoms are no good unless they are used.
Thank you
2006-09-17 14:47:07 · answer #1 · answered by brandy10006 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is important to know about the issues and the candadates. Ask questions. Get their positions on issues of importance to you. Finally get out and vote. You really can't complain about some new government policy or law if you did not get out and vote on election day.
2006-09-17 14:48:45 · answer #2 · answered by Coach D. 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Participation means nothinh when you are essentially forced to vote for one of two lousy parties. Don't vote! Why legitimize their stupid game?
2006-09-17 14:46:29 · answer #3 · answered by Duque de Alba 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because individual decision-making is the essence of democracy and a public that is ignorant is ill-equipped for decision-making.
2006-09-17 14:45:15 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
because if we had no education then we would be liberals
2006-09-17 16:00:12 · answer #5 · answered by steve e 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋