is anything to the 0th power 0? or the number itself
2006-09-17 12:56:20 · 11 answers · asked by kmi361 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
OK I'll throw my 2cents in too.
x^0=1 for any x on the complex plane.
Yes, even i^0=1
Now there's a question about 0^0 not being
defined. We can take care of that with our
little calculus trick using limits.
Lim(x->0)(x^x)=1 and everyone's happy
except loveya236 who will flunk out of math
and end up a sociology major. Isabelle and Robert
B just need to grow up a bit in the world of
math. Good luck to you both, you'll need it.
2006-09-17 13:24:24 · answer #1 · answered by albert 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
As stated before , anything raised to the 0th power is 1.
This is true for every single number. Even 0^0 (0 raised to 0th power) = 1. Try this out on a calculator and you'll see it.
2006-09-17 20:01:18 · answer #2 · answered by Manan T 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The last answer is right. 0 to the 0th power is undefined. This is because 0 divided by 0 is undefined. Anything else to the 0th power is 1.
I don't know what you mean by "or the number itself". 1 to the 0th power is 1. So 1 to the 0th power is the number itself.
2006-09-17 20:11:47 · answer #3 · answered by Robert B 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
anything raised to the 0th power = 1
2006-09-17 20:14:46 · answer #4 · answered by sandyclaws08 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
anything to the zeroth power is 1. anything to the first power is the number itself.
8^0 = 1
8 ^1 = 8
8^2 = 64
etc
2006-09-17 20:12:04 · answer #5 · answered by ronw 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Anything to the 0th power is 0 EXCEPT for 0^0. 0^0 is an undefined form (in calculus, so is 0/0, infinity^0, etc..)
2006-09-17 20:02:05 · answer #6 · answered by Isabelle 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
nope. anything powered to 0 is 1. always. anything raised to 1 will give you the same number.
2006-09-17 20:00:12 · answer #7 · answered by Sergio__ 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Anything raised to the zero power is always going to be a 1.
2006-09-17 19:59:26 · answer #8 · answered by Farrah 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
they are both wrong 0 is just 0, im a math major, there is no power
2006-09-17 20:01:54 · answer #9 · answered by wendy a 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
it is 1.
keep in mind that x ^ m / x ^ n = x ^ (m - n), so x ^ m / x ^ m = x ^ (m -m), which equals x ^ 0 = 1
2006-09-17 20:01:42 · answer #10 · answered by Giovanni McAdoo 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋