Think about it. If the sentence was false, then "this sentence is false" would not be true, so the sentence would be true. But, how can that be true when we got that result by assuming it was false? I'll give you $53 million if you can prove it either way.
2006-09-17 12:40:37
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answer #1
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answered by bb 2
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The Liar Paradox is an argument that arrives at a contradiction by reasoning about a Liar Sentence. The classical Liar Sentence is the following self-referential sentence:
(1) This sentence is false.
Experts in the field of philosophical logic have never agreed on the way out of the trouble despite 2,300 years of attention. Here is the trouble--a sketch of the Liar Argument that reveals the contradiction:
If (1) is true, then (1) is false. On the other hand, assume (1) is false. Because the Liar Sentence is saying precisely that (namely that it is false), the Liar Sentence is true, so (1) is true. We've now shown that (1) is true if and only if it is false. Since (1) is one or the other, it is both.
The argument depends upon a few more assumptions and steps, but these are apparently as uncontroversial as those above. The contradictory result apparently throws us into the lion's den of semantic incoherence. This article explores the details of the principal attempts to resolve the paradox. Most logical paradoxes are based on circular definitions or self-referential statements, and the liar paradox is no exception.
Many people, when first encountering the Liar Paradox, will react by saying that the Liar Sentence must be meaningless. This popular solution does stop the argument of the paradox, but it isn't an adequate solution if it answers the question, "Why is the Liar Sentence meaningless?" simply with the ad hoc remark, "Otherwise we get a paradox." An adequate solution would offer a more systematic treatment. For example, the sentence, "This sentence is in English," is very similar to the Liar Sentence. Is it meaningless, too? What ingredients of the Liar Sentence make it meaningless such that other sentences with those same ingredients will also be meaningless? Are disjunctions with the Liar Sentence also meaningless? The questions continue, and an adequate solution should address them systematically.
2006-09-17 12:40:24
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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It is false because if the sentence is there it isn't false, it also isn'tunder any disguises,(or is it?), that we know of so in the end the sentence is true
2006-09-17 12:37:58
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answer #3
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answered by harrypotterschick07 2
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Yes, that sentence was indeed true or false.
2006-09-18 01:25:55
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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it can't be proved as either true or false, so it become uncharacterizable by its truth or falacity
2006-09-17 12:36:43
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answer #5
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answered by Sunian 4
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false?
2006-09-17 12:36:25
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answer #6
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answered by BENDER IS THE BOMB!!! (Fav show) 4
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YES! It is below.
2006-09-17 13:31:13
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answer #7
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answered by ravin_lunatic 6
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its an oxymoron
2006-09-17 14:41:48
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answer #8
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answered by Mattimos 3
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true
2006-09-17 12:36:34
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answer #9
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answered by aggravatingprick 4
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