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HELP ?wot is 32-1 mix how many mls of oil to ltr,s /galleons of petrol

2006-09-17 05:19:56 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Cars & Transportation Maintenance & Repairs

8 answers

It's 32 mils petrol to 1 mil oil.

Whatever measurement of volume you are using, it's 32 of petrol and one of oil.

2006-09-17 05:29:14 · answer #1 · answered by Bajan Deane 3 · 0 0

1 L is 1000 ml, so 1/32 of that is 31.25 ml. For a 32-1 ratio, mix 31.25 ml of oil in for each liter of petrol.

2006-09-17 05:26:26 · answer #2 · answered by Judy 7 · 0 0

Doesn`t matter if it`s teaspoons or gallons, 32-1 means 32 of the first thing to 1 of the second thing

2006-09-17 05:29:48 · answer #3 · answered by toofy 2 · 0 0

1 part oil, 32 parts gas.
or
1 litre of oil into 32 litres of gas

2006-09-17 05:24:01 · answer #4 · answered by thecat 2 · 0 0

in simple terms divide 3 hundred with the aid of 25, which supplies you 12. for this reason the ratio is 3 hundred:12 For destiny reference, that's in user-friendly terms a count of increasing (or now and back, simplifying) the ratio.

2016-10-15 02:25:20 · answer #5 · answered by goodgion 4 · 0 0

32 liters of gasoline (petrol) to one liter of oil.

2006-09-17 05:24:38 · answer #6 · answered by JetDoc 7 · 0 0

¼ pint oil to 1 gallon of petrol, (4.5 ltrs).

2006-09-17 09:36:46 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

details as above.

2006-09-17 20:24:22 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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