2006-09-16 15:50:07 · 9 answers · asked by vande-man 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Other - Science
vibrating air molocules are not "sound". Our ear and brain interpret them as such. Right?
2006-09-16 15:59:54 · update #1
A bowl of pudding only has taste when I put it in my mouth. It doesn't have taste or flavor sitting in my fridge! right!
2006-09-16 16:28:39 · update #2
The walls in my kitchen are not white when I leave the room! right!
2006-09-16 16:29:58 · update #3
most of we we interpret as reallity occurs in our head, right!
2006-09-16 16:31:36 · update #4
semantics!!!
Really, this is just a question of your definition of sound.
The OED includes the definition "that which is or may be heard." The "may be" part gets you. The compressed air molecules are a sound if they could be heard, even if they aren't.
Merriam-Webster gives us "mechanical radiant energy that is transmitted by longitudinal pressure waves in a material medium (as air) and is the objective cause of hearing." So, again, no requirement to be percieved.
2006-09-16 16:01:29 · answer #1 · answered by selket 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes. Even if there are no humans around, there would certainly be some other living creature that would hear it--think of dogs, which have the ability to hear sounds that are beyond human perception; the odds are that if a tree fell in an empty forest, there would be at least one dog that would catch the last sound waves as they dissipated.
2006-09-17 00:55:11 · answer #2 · answered by nacmanpriscasellers 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you define sound as something that a human hears, then of course one has to be present. If you define it in the usual scientific way as vibrations in air or some other medium, then no person or any other living thing is required.
2006-09-17 00:51:31 · answer #3 · answered by Ken H 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
wrong. Everything (taste, sound, etc.) are still there, just we can't interpret them until we use those certain receptor cells (tounge, ears, eyes, etc.) So unless whatever is making the sound is in a vacuum, then it will still produce the sound even if no one is there to hear it.
2006-09-17 00:15:35 · answer #4 · answered by trainkid22 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Of course yes because sound is produced by vibration of sound waves. Even if it does not reach your ear at least it exist....
2006-09-16 23:18:49 · answer #5 · answered by donlouies 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no, the sound wave needs to reach a human or animal's be interrupted into sound ear to be
2006-09-16 23:27:51 · answer #6 · answered by steve e 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, sound is the vibration of air molecules.
2006-09-16 22:54:01 · answer #7 · answered by green star 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
definitly... there is no such thing as silence; sound is always there... so when we think its quiet, its really not
2006-09-16 22:52:06 · answer #8 · answered by DeAd DiScO 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
...and thing as silence might be there in outer space where the atmosphere is very thin.
2006-09-16 23:12:52 · answer #9 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋