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I am trying to evaluate the Bromwich integral which computes the inverse Laplace transform of a given function. The integral is as follows:

/c+i*infinity
|
I F(s)*exp(s*t) dt
|
/ c-i*infinity

where F(s)= s^p/(s^2+1)^q
p and q are positive, c is greater than the real part of all the singularities of F(s), and i^2=-1.

So the integration is done along the vertical line x=c in the complex plane.

I appreciate all answers or hints. If you can't work with F(s), substitute values for p and q and work with that.

2006-09-16 12:07:26 · 2 answers · asked by thierryinho 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

Basically we are taking the inverse laplace transform. So if a=1, p=0 and q=1 then the integral simply becomes sin(t). But I need to generalise the result for 00.

2006-09-18 07:00:07 · update #1

2 answers

To be honest, I'm no mathmetician. Not even close! Apparently your quest for knowledge far exceeds my ability to give you the answer you're looking for. But you can look here:
http://www.allexperts.com/browse.cgi?catLvl=1&catID=37
Just select the right category, and ask the question. You will receive an answer to your email (generally within 3 days). Good luck!

2006-09-16 12:15:48 · answer #1 · answered by Road Trip 3 · 0 0

http://mathworld.wolfram.com/BromwichIntegral.html

Substitute F(s) and the constraints and have a good time.

2006-09-17 13:21:08 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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