Back then in the days of Columbus and after...it was land, wasn't it? So there is no difference...?
2006-09-16 09:35:47 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference ➔ Homework Help
Spanish exploration set up exploitative situations that to this day are third-world entities.
English exploration set up mini-Englands that are to this day first-world entities, where they killed all the indigenous population and replaced them with English-background people.
For example, the US and Australia are typical of English exploration. Mexico and the Phillipines are typical of Spanish exploration.
India was different, as it wasn't 'exploration' so much as conquering an equivalent civilization by England.
2006-09-16 09:39:26 · answer #1 · answered by nora22000 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Spanish took tapas and the English took rye bread.
2006-09-16 16:37:14 · answer #2 · answered by trinitybelwoodspark 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
English would be a little bit more smart.
2006-09-17 12:52:37 · answer #3 · answered by JAMES 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Uh?
2006-09-16 16:37:18 · answer #4 · answered by Epicarus 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
uh... one is english.. and one is spanish.. DUH!! LMFAO
2006-09-16 16:37:03 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋