No, because that doesn't fit the statutory definition of treason.
Article III Section 3: "Treason against the United States, shall consist only in levying war against them, or in adhering to their enemies, giving them aid and comfort."
The phrase "aid and comfort" is defined as providing material support, money, weapons, sanctuary, etc. It does not include voting on laws that might have some tangential benefit, because of the specific voting immunities in Article I.
It does however fit the statutory definition of bribery, which is a felony. See 18 USC 201(b).
2006-09-16 08:19:01
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answer #1
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answered by coragryph 7
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So by your statement if bribery is treason, then every law is treason! I get pulled over for speeding and get treason charges? Treason is aiding and comforting the enemy, not taking a bribe from some lobbyist who isn't an enemy or enemy combatant. It has nothing to do with the fact that they themselves make the laws (be quiet, conspiracy theory people). If you want bribery to be treason, go to some totalitarian state-where they actually let people take bribes, and shoot others for it.
2006-09-16 16:33:07
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answer #2
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answered by A Train 2
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because that doesn't meet the definition of treason. read the statute. treason is aiding or giving comfort to the enemy, not taking bribes, and of course that isn't the intent of the law
2006-09-16 15:25:19
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answer #3
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answered by C_Millionaire 5
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Knuckles the Torturer Needs Your Help!!!
http://www.villagevoice.com/news/0638,fiore,74465,9.html
2006-09-16 18:37:26
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answer #4
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answered by Bearable 5
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Because taking bribes is not necessarily treason.
2006-09-16 16:12:00
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Probably because they make the laws to suit themselves!
2006-09-16 15:47:04
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answer #6
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answered by ? 6
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when your that high up in goverment,you have alot of connections.in a way you are above the law
2006-09-16 15:32:24
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answer #7
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answered by john doe 5
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because it isn't reason it's taking a bribe....
2006-09-16 16:12:16
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answer #8
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answered by jeejee 1
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