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2006-09-16 08:06:53 · 12 answers · asked by Emily A 1 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

12 answers

actually more criminal offenses could be a civil one.

murder, it is criminal but a person can be sued by the family of the murdered person

theft, both

fraud, both

reckless driving invloving a car weck both

get the idea/?

2006-09-16 10:39:20 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

For (many) criminal offenses there is also an underlying civil offense. A few illustrations would be:

Robbery or Burglary as criminal offenses. The loss of property as the civil issue.

Battery or Homicide as the crime. Personal injury, death, health, etc, as the civil issues.

Roofing (contractor) fraud as the criminal part. Damage and having to tear down and replace the roof as the civil issue.

Drunk driver hits your car as the crime. Damage to your car and maybe you as the driver is the civil issue.

The list can go on and on. But you can see that as the result of some criminal action, a civil (damages) action is often triggered over the same act.

2006-09-16 14:17:42 · answer #2 · answered by nothing 6 · 0 0

Yes. Something can be both a civil offense and a criminal offense, if the same action violates more than one statute.

2006-09-16 08:09:41 · answer #3 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0 0

Yes OJ Simpson went through both a criminal and a civil hearing for his offense. He was found to be liable (effectively guilty) In the second and had to ppay damages to the families of his victims.

2006-09-16 10:16:47 · answer #4 · answered by malcy 6 · 0 0

Absolutely. Civil causes of action and criminal causes of action often overlap with one another. For example, if I come into your house uninvited and start breaking things around your house, you have both a civil remedy and a criminal remedy. In civil court you could sue me for trespass (to your land itself) and trespass to chattel (breaking the things in your house). You can also call the police who can haul me off to jail for criminal trespass and intentional destruction of property.

There are a ton of other examples where an act will form the basis of civil liability as well as criminal liability.

2006-09-16 08:27:31 · answer #5 · answered by dasvidas 3 · 0 0

Criminal Record Search Database : http://www.SearchVerifyInfos.com/Help

2015-10-08 22:43:52 · answer #6 · answered by Lyn 1 · 0 0

Yes

2006-09-16 08:14:23 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes. If you break into someones house you can be arrested by the police criminally and sued by the homeowner civilly.

2006-09-16 08:35:30 · answer #8 · answered by Chris J 6 · 0 0

Of course they can. They just can''t be tried at the same time in the same court in the U.S. Example? O.J. Simpson was tried in criminal court and won, then tried in civil court and lost - for the murder of his ex-wife and her boyfriend.

2006-09-16 08:11:38 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes.

2006-09-16 08:08:38 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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