"...and to assume, among the Powers of the Earth, the separate and equal Station to which the Laws of Nature and of Nature's God entitle them, a decent Respect to the Opinions of Mankind requires that they should declare the Causes which impel them to the Separation."
everyone knows the basic idea, but I'm looking for a word for word translation of this
2006-09-16 04:09:33 · 6 answers · asked by Yah 3 in Education & Reference ➔ Homework Help
Translation? Into which language?
I haven't checked the accuracy of the quote but it seems about right. It isn't word for word, because phrases have meaning too
"Among the power of the earth"--there are political powers, such as governments, there are sociological powers such as norms and mores which they knew of but since the psuedoscience of sociology hadn't been invented they hadn't been defined.
"separate and equal station"--classes are inconsequential, the rich are equal to the poor (but they did have a problem with slavery, that some saw though not others), there were no "nobles and commoner" distinctions that were practiced almost everywhere in europe at that time.
"the laws of nature and of nature's God"--science and religion are both implicitly concenting. We still use the laws of nature expression "laws of thermodynamics" etc. This was written during the Enlightenment and it was politically-correct in that day to refer to God in that abstract way. Notice the phrasing was not, "our God" or "Christian God", that was personal. Philosophers like Kant had given description of a distant God who instilled not conscious but a sense of "oughtness" that compels us in moral issues--this was "nature's God".
"a decent respect to the opinions of mankind"--the English government was herein accused of calloused and capricious acts. The rebelling colonists had no say in the laws, taxation, enforcement, etc. Their king turned a deaf ear to their petitions (and yes they made them).
"requires that they should declare the causes"--the points of contention were about to be mentioned. The colonists were not capriciously electing independence, they had greviences and they are about to be listed.
"which impel them to the separation"--'your actions have forced me to divorce you'.
2006-09-16 04:31:03 · answer #1 · answered by Rabbit 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
First study your shape. The quote you misquote is from the statement of Independence. that's a treatise explaining to the international why the yankee human beings committed treason against that is government, King George. human beings weren't allowed illustration in King Georges government, so they did not have any different thank you to tackle their grievances. We do, the form facilitates us using votes to alter the government. The statement of Independence isn't component to the form, became not at all component to the form, and not in any respect meant to be slightly of the form. The shape facilitates exchange of government for the time of the vote of the human beings. Any armed sedition is precisely prohibited by ability of the form and stated as Treason with particular punishments proscribed. additionally, any real looking individual might communicate formerly dropping nukes or invading a rustic on the borders of China, the main important protection rigidity rigidity interior the international. we could not defeat China in 1950, and we nevertheless won't be in a position to right this moment. China can loose over a million squaddies and not influence their attempt against capability in any respect. we've in hassle-free terms a million.3 million blended protection rigidity workers. do a splash examine and spot what's sensible and what's silly
2016-10-15 01:37:39 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In order that they might gain their independence, they needed to explain to the world exactly why they were taking that step.
Revolt against the crown is treason, which is a capital offense. They therefore intended to show that their quest for independence was not on a whim, but that they were driven to such a course of action.
2006-09-16 04:21:55 · answer #3 · answered by spyguy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
How could a word for word translation be given? It's already written in English. If you don't understand it as it is then that's your problem. You should try trying to understand Shakespeare.
2006-09-16 04:17:56 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I never understood it. It was written a different time period, no wonder it's hard for us.
I wish I could help you, sorry. : (
2006-09-16 04:17:37 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No idea - sorry!@
2006-09-16 04:17:25 · answer #6 · answered by nswblue 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋