2006-09-15 23:53:31 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
it comes down to what ever is agreed to in the final divorce decree!
2006-09-15 23:58:01 · answer #1 · answered by funseeker 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Once the documents of the property were signed over and when the property got transferred in the name of the wife either by way of sale or gift, the husband has no right over that property even after separation.
2006-09-16 06:58:41 · answer #2 · answered by Seagull 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Assuming that the ownership of ANYTHING was recorded or put into writing, nobody can simply say "Changed my mind" Just as a car. The name on the title IS the name of the owner, legally. But, I'm certainly not a lawyer. The name on the deed to the propery IS the owner.
2006-09-16 07:49:06 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the property was signed over to her in a legal document, the answer is no.
2006-09-16 06:55:54 · answer #4 · answered by Angela 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Too late for that. Once it's sign over, it belongs to her.
2006-09-16 06:59:21 · answer #5 · answered by cheetah7 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No not unless she gives it back, and then, I'd want her to sign something stating she did, for your protection.
2006-09-16 07:13:49 · answer #6 · answered by t.larae 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope,not if it was legally signed over.
2006-09-16 07:33:39 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
posses ion is 9/10tenths of the law
2006-09-16 08:58:51 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If it is in wife's name then it belongs to wife.
2006-09-16 06:58:12 · answer #9 · answered by bill a 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sorry, Charlie ! You signed it ..
2006-09-16 06:57:20 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋