2006-09-15 17:22:10 · 6 answers · asked by Lover Boy 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
I learnt: "-1 = 1" and I can prove it:
-1 = 1/-1
therefore:
(-1)^(1/2)=(1/-1)^(1/2)
the rule is: (a/b)^x = (a^x)/(b^x)
therefore:
(-1)^(1/2) = 1^(1/2)/(-1)^(1/2)
multiply by (-1)^(1/2), you get:
((-1)^(1/2))^2 = 1^(1/2)
everyone knows the indicies rule: 1^(1/2) = square root of 1 = 1
everyone also knows the other indicies rule: (a^x)^y = a^xy
therefore (with application of the indicies rules):
(-1)^(2/2) = 1
Further simplication:
(-1)^1 = 1
Everyone knows that a^1 = a
so therefore -1 = 1!!!!!
(with manipulation of the conclusion, you can make any number equal to any other number (excluding infinity)).
2006-09-15 17:34:27 · answer #1 · answered by the Benny Bossy Klan 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
I had good evidence of "the squeaky wheel gets the grease" today. Had to complain about facilities problems at school. Nothing happened when I was patient; it took being annoying to get help.
Don't like doing it, but sometimes, it's the only way. Alas.
2006-09-16 00:28:37 · answer #2 · answered by Ron C 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"Try not to spend so much time on Yahoo! Answers." I hope you have a good day, too.
2006-09-16 00:24:34 · answer #3 · answered by yahoohoo 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Have a good day too hon. Live and let live, this world would be a safer and happier place if we could all do that. x
2006-09-16 04:06:22 · answer #4 · answered by Lyn I 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Life is worth living !
2006-09-16 09:22:22 · answer #5 · answered by Spiritualseeker 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It's easier to distribute than gather.
2006-09-16 01:11:02 · answer #6 · answered by flignar 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋