English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

I don't know the word in english for that function's property, in spanish is "suprayectividad"

2006-09-15 12:36:04 · 3 answers · asked by ealr1980 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

If I understand the question correctly, the answer is yes: the function is surjective. The domain and codomain both include all real numbers.

2006-09-15 13:34:58 · answer #1 · answered by Bramblyspam 7 · 0 0

it is a one to one onto function also known as surjective function
In mathematics, a function f is said to be surjective if its values span its whole codomain; that is, for every y in the codomain, there is at least one x in the domain such that f(x) = y.

Said another way, a function f: X → Y is surjective if and only if its range f(X) is equal to its codomain Y. A surjective function is called a surjection, and said to be onto.

2006-09-19 07:04:56 · answer #2 · answered by raj 7 · 0 0

surjection

2006-09-15 19:45:00 · answer #3 · answered by banjuja58 4 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers