2006-09-15 10:49:58 · 13 answers · asked by dan d 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Under the federal sentencing guidelines, probation is separate from statutory fines, and separate from restitution.
So, as near as I can tell, while probation can be imposed to ensure that restitution is paid, the actual costs of maintaining the probation cannot be charged directly. Just like a judge can't force the prisoner to pay the costs of incarceration directly.
However, the judge can impose any fines that are statutorily permitted, and the costs of the probation can be factored into the amount of those fines. (See Section 5E). But the fines are still separate from the probation itself.
2006-09-15 10:58:39 · answer #1 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Yes
2006-09-15 11:02:40 · answer #2 · answered by Bawney 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That is the way it works yes. But sometimes you can get help or a lowered rate because of fianancial problems.
2006-09-15 10:59:59 · answer #3 · answered by firedup 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A judge can do anything they want! That is what appeals courts are for!
2006-09-15 10:53:36 · answer #4 · answered by cantcu 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes but a lot don't have any money and never pay
2006-09-15 10:53:13 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes and if more judges actually did it they wouldnt have to use our tax money
2006-09-15 10:57:43 · answer #6 · answered by pdudenhefer 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes they can.
2006-09-15 11:02:41 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes if you owe the courts money they will get it from you
2006-09-15 10:59:42 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
they pretty much have a Carte Blanche and can do almost what they want....
2006-09-15 11:04:29 · answer #9 · answered by bluedanube69 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes.they can order you to do what ever they deem necessary.
2006-09-15 10:53:00 · answer #10 · answered by racechik69 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋