gwertwer
2006-09-15 05:53:31 · 6 answers · asked by temuujin n 1 in Social Science ➔ Other - Social Science
Yes, but that can make your inference rather amphibious if you aren't careful.
2006-09-15 06:02:02 · answer #1 · answered by Bran McMuffin 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You can't make any useful inferences without any observations to form the basis of the parameters of your logic, but I guess, technically you can make inferences without making any observations.
An inference is a conclusion reached on the basis of evidence and reasoning. The only inferences that could be made without any observations would be purely mathematical or logical ones. But then you can really only say "If A, then B." You would have to assume the starting parameters. That's why some people love logic...because it's pure. That's also why pure logic isn't often very useful. (ex: how helpful is it to prove that you can't really "know" that the sun is going to rise tomorrow based on pure logical reasoning? Not very.)
2006-09-15 06:06:39 · answer #2 · answered by deadwoodfan 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
According to inference's definition no. You can make a guess without making any observations.
2006-09-15 06:04:52 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
not really with any accuracy. even if you infer based on prior experience, you observed something prior to what you're inferring now.
2006-09-15 06:01:37 · answer #4 · answered by practicalwizard 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Of course one can. Scientists do it constantly relative to the Esoteric realms.
2006-09-15 06:07:39 · answer #5 · answered by docjp 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Maybe if it's based on intuition.
2006-09-15 06:00:38 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋