2006-09-15 04:47:15 · 9 answers · asked by Red Head Connect 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Being bilingual would only be more knowledgable. If this is the reason they turned you down, Then yes, it would be descrimination. Or stupidity on their behalf!.
2006-09-15 04:58:14 · answer #1 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I know the feeling but no its not its considered a qualification for that job. the reason it isnt discrimination is because anybody can learn another language. its like saying you were discrimintated against because you dont have a degree in that field. I am a pharmacy technician and when I lived in southern CA I was turned down for so many jobs because I didnt know spanish. In the medical field there it is almost impossible to get a job without being bi lingual. I ended up commuting to an area that was predominately old people so that I could work. It sucks I know but its the new demand in employment. I personally think that because english is the first language here then it should be learned by immigrants. My grandparents came from Italy I am only a second generation of American and they learned it. My husband's parents were born and raised in Mexico and they learned English so its not being racist or anything thats just my opinion. But people like my husband fight in wars for our freedoms and freedom of speech is one of them so I guess its a matter of interpretation.
2006-09-15 12:04:27 · answer #2 · answered by ArmyWife 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. Being Bi-Lingual is a qualification for the job. That would be like a person that can't drive feeling discriminated against because they can't get a job as a bus driver.
2006-09-15 11:49:26 · answer #3 · answered by MEL T 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. Discrimination is based on something you can not change, such as your gender or race. Being bi-lingual is a matter of education. It is something you can change. They can require certain education for a job. Would you want them to have to hire someone as a doctor who did not have medical education? That would be just as much "discrimination".
2006-09-15 11:58:09 · answer #4 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It could be. Any language (English above all) that is a requirement for the job can be insisted upon. But you can't demand that people speak Japanese just because you're a Japanese company and you really want to restrict employment to ethnic Japanese people.
The issue came up, and was resolved differently based on Friendship, Commerce and Navigation treaties, in connection with managerial employees seconded from the home country -- Japan, France, etc.
2006-09-15 12:03:42 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Of course not, why should they hire people who are not qualified... maybe they need a bi-lingual person.. don't cry because you can't get a job
2006-09-15 11:52:11 · answer #6 · answered by alexg114 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It probably should be in most cases, but the fact is, it isn't. It's a requirement/qualification for some jobs.
2006-09-15 11:51:33 · answer #7 · answered by Mike N 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
nope that's a job requirement. if you don't meet requirements you won't be hired. You don't want to hire someone who only fulfills some of the jobs requiremtents do you?
2006-09-15 11:55:45 · answer #8 · answered by shiara_blade 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
in ohio it is
2006-09-15 11:50:31 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋