2006-09-15 04:17:59 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Cars & Transportation ➔ Boats & Boating
Years from (1913 to 1964)( 24 to 1) thru (40 to 1)2 cycle oil to gas ratio, depending on OMC recommendation. (50 to 1) of TCW III in (1965 and above.) I still don't understand how they can get by with 100 to 1 in some oil injected outboards, they must have guts of a tank ! So just what is the year of that little Evinrude, dear ? If it's a 4 stroke the oil doesn't go in the gas. That's another story. (Thanks frank 2669 marine tech . So that's how they do it. Remember that needle bearings do slide, especially if they have worn a bit. Mercury was the first followed by Evinrudes Fast Twin.)
2006-09-15 06:21:08 · answer #1 · answered by Carl 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If this is an older 5hp like 1950s you still need to run 24/1 later models that were needle-bearing motors were to run 24/1 but at that point it wasnt an improvement of the engines it was the quality of the oil...that was improved so you can run 50/1 ... someone mentioned some outboards were running 100/1 but only at idle as the rpm raises, so does the oil ratio...
2006-09-18 18:50:18 · answer #2 · answered by frank26694 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
50 to 1
2006-09-15 14:19:09 · answer #3 · answered by bill j 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Some say 100 to 1, but 50 to 1 is better.
2006-09-15 05:30:39 · answer #4 · answered by science teacher 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To a certain extent it depends on the quality of the 2 stroke oil but ask evinrude to get a definative answer
2006-09-15 12:05:19 · answer #5 · answered by PARADOX 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
50:1, (add 3 oz. of oil for every gallon of gasoline)
2006-09-15 05:07:13 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
50-1 but i always give mine a little extra shot...it wont hurt a thing
2006-09-15 19:16:10 · answer #7 · answered by bill b 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋