the first ammendment specifically states
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the government for a redress of grievances.
it says they shall may no law!!!
why then, do local governments require permits to march or assemble peacefully? i mean... if federal law supercedes state or local.... can this be a legal defense in court?
2006-09-14
19:47:39
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5 answers
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asked by
Valkrygrrl
2
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics