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Suppose a function (f) maps from A to B and is one-to-one. What set is f of f^-1 an identity map on?

2006-09-14 17:53:59 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

Actually doug :P its an identity map on all subsets of B.

2006-09-14 18:26:11 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Clearly it is an identity map on B.


Doug

2006-09-15 01:00:26 · answer #2 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 0 1

Calculus challenge? whats so hard about it?

2006-09-15 00:56:53 · answer #3 · answered by sparrowhawk 4 · 0 1

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