Solution:1 (X^3-1)/((x^4-1) equals
((x-1)(x^2+X+1))/(X^2+1)(X+1)(x-1)
Cancelling out x-1 from the numerator and denominator,you get (x^2+X+1)/((X^2+1)(X+1)).
Now substituting x=1,you get 3/4 or 0.75
Solution:2
f[g(x)]=f[1/(1+x^2)]=(1/(x^2+1))^2 + 1...and simplify it to get the result by taking LCM.
2006-09-14 17:19:31
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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The numerator = (x-1)(x^2+x+1)
the denominator = (x-1)/(x^3+x^2+x+1)
so the reuslt = (x^2+x+1)/(x^3+x^2+x+1)
as x-> 1 the value is (1+1+1)/(1+1+1+1) = 3/4
problem 2
f(x) = x^2+1
g(x) = 1/(x^2+1)
g(f(x)) = 1/(f(x)^2+1)
= 1/((x^2 +1)^2 +1)
and if you want to simplify
=1/(x^4+2x^2 + 1 +1) = 1/(x^4+2x^2+2)
2006-09-14 18:15:19
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answer #2
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answered by Mein Hoon Na 7
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The first problem requires using l'Hospital's rule. Differentiating top and bottom with respect to x, we get 3x^2/4x^3, which at x = 1 is 3/4. It will be instructive to evaluate (using your pocket calculator) the value of the expression at x = 1.001. Previous responders get the correct numerical value, but by an invalid procedure: multiplying or dividing by 0/0 (which is what they are doing) is not defined.
Second problem requires no calculus, it is just a matter of substitution. f(g(x)) = (1/(x^2 +1))^2 + 1.
2006-09-14 17:20:20
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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(1) To find lim(x^3 -1) / (x^4 -1) as x goes to 1, use L'Hopital's Rule.
By doing that we get lim(3x^2)/(4x^3)
As x goes to 1, the second limit (which equals the first limit) tends to (3*1^2)/(4*1^3) = 3/4
(2) f(g(x)) = f(1/(x^2 +1)) = 1/(x^2 +1)^2 + 1
2006-09-14 17:37:29
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Problem no. (1)....
As x approaches to 1,
lim (x^3 - 1) / (x^4 - 1)
=lim (x^3 - 1) / {(x^2+1)(x+1)(x-1)}
=lim [1 / {(x^2+1)(x+1)}] lim [(x^3 - 1) / (x-1)]
= [1 / {(1^2+1)(1+1)}] lim [(x^3 - 1^3) / (x-1)]
= [1 / {2*2}] 3*1^(3-1) [according to limit properties]
= [1 / 4]*3*1^2
= 3 / 4
Problem no. (2).....
f(g(x))
=f( 1 / (x^2+1) ) [because, g(x) = 1 / (x^2+1)]
=1 / (x^2+1)^2 + 1 [because, f(x) = x^2+1]
={1+(x^2+1)^2}/(x^2+1)^2
={x^4+2x^2+2} / {x^4+2x^2+1}
2006-09-14 20:11:03
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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1. Substitute 1 to the equation and you will get 0/0 which is infinity. However, the logical answer to your limit shall be 1 because x is equals to a definite value
2. Substitute the g(x) inside the f(x) then you will get
(1/(x^2+1))^2 + 1 for your answer
2006-09-14 17:19:24
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answer #6
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answered by Mr. Logic 3
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1. Since both the numerator and denominator are 0 when you plug in 1. (x-1) is a factor of both. factor out an (x-1) from both and go from there.
2. in the equation f(x) replace x with g(x).
2006-09-14 17:16:10
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answer #7
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answered by Demiurge42 7
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you will desire to be attentive to that the spinoff of a relentless function is 0 and that of exponential function e^x is itself. nice humorous tale with a twist on the top. Now, who choose to enlarge it?
2016-09-30 23:35:48
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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