I just proved that 2 = 1.....here is my proof!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!?

Question

2=1? Is it Possible???

Assume that a = b.

Because a = b, one can also assume that a^2 = ab.

Now we can see that following is possible: a^2 – b^2 = ab – b^2.

Now factor both sides: (a – b)(a + b) = b(a – b).

Now we can divide both sides by (a – b):

[(a – b)(a + b)]/(a - b) = [b(a – b)]/(a - b)

This cancels out the (a – b)’s in the problem, we are now left with:

a + b = b.

Earlier we defined a = b so now we can substitute a for b:

b + b = b which can also be written: 2b = b.

Now we divide both sides by b:

2b/b = b/b

Now all the b’s cancel leaving 2(1) = 1 which an also be written:

2 = 1

AMAZING!!!!!!!!!!!!

ok...so the guys..or girl...whoever...is right...you can't divide by zero...and for you..whoever you are...lol...I didn't get that from a text book...some body came up with something..and I expanded on it and finished it..too bad there are 2 fallacies...one..you can't divide by zero... and two...2 cannot equal 1 it isn't mathematically sound...but hey..its a cool proof nonetheless...

Answer 1

Since you assumed that a = b at the very beginning, this means that a-b = 0.
So you cannot divide both sides of (a – b)(a + b) = b(a – b) by
a-b because division by zero is not allowed.
This is the flawed step in your argument. Without it, your "AMAZING" proof of 2 = 1 falls apart.

Answer 2

Kekeke... it seems like you are running a big round without knowing that you already have the answer in the begining....

a=b !!!

If you have put a=b, i think no matter where the world you go, a is still equals to b and that is the answer. And of course, 1= 2 in the first place... hope you understand..

In the world of communication and phylosophy, 1 can be always 2 , afterall, is just a word to distinguish the difference and numbers only. But, mathematically, 1 cannot be 2.

Answer 3

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Answer 4

How about this: Two fertile parents equals 1 baby

By the way, you really didn't ask a question, you just showed us how good you are at copying from text books

Answer 5

Division by zero in the fifth line. TILT!

Answer 6

quite amazing but i think there is a little mistakes cause

i have seen the proof of 1=2 by means of a^2-a^2= a^2-a^2

nevertheless, ur proof is so gd. i have never thought this way of proof.

admirable proof!!!!!!!!

Answer 7

You can't divide by (a-b) because that is zero.

remember a=b.

Try again. Division by zero isn't allowed.

Answer 8

I agree, my friend, this is the simple meaning of Oneness. Others will ridicule you but aren't most people who use more than 6% of their brain? Peace...

Answer 9

Dude, study number theory...

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Natural_number

Answer 10

wrong!
You assumed that a=b so dividing by (a-b) is dividing by 0, and you can't do that.