2006-09-14 12:52:43 · 5 answers · asked by jarynth3 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
m s - Why do math questions "obviously" not form a set?
2006-09-14 13:05:44 · update #1
bandf and Polymath - You can construct an injective correspondence of classes
Sets -> Questions
S |-> Is S a set?
If "Questions" is a set, then "Sets" would be a subset, hence a set, which is false by Russell's paradox.
BTW your poem is kinda amateurish... but I like creative interdisciplinary mathematicians... and if wou were an actuary, thumbs up, it takes courage to get real!
2006-09-14 13:12:23 · update #2
wut do you mean by set...?? ther are multiple of answers for that
2006-09-14 12:57:14 · answer #1 · answered by desire_4_life_4_shoo 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, you can form a set containing all questions. The elements of the set are the individual questions in that set.
Then, if you are a real geek, you can develop some rules to determine whether two elements of the set are the same, whether some elements are more "helpful" or "interesting" or "difficult" than others. This is what the geeks who created Yahoo! Answers do with their time.
2006-09-14 13:08:15 · answer #2 · answered by Polymath 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, and your question above is a member of that set.
You can put almost anything together and say it is a set, so there is no reason you couldn't have a group of questions forming a set.
2006-09-14 12:55:23 · answer #3 · answered by Puzzling 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
yes and no....
what is your definition of the "set"? ... if you mean the set of questions in yahoo.answers then every question is in it...
if the set is the set of all maths questions....then obviously some are not in it...
2006-09-14 13:02:09 · answer #4 · answered by m s 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no, trust me I'm a space engineer
2006-09-14 12:56:40 · answer #5 · answered by sonicwingmode 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋