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2006-09-14 09:12:44 · 9 answers · asked by talatyaseen 2 in Social Science Psychology

There is a grammatical mistake in this question.In fact it was:-
"HAS ODEIPUS THEORY BEEN PROVED"?

2006-09-14 14:16:01 · update #1

There is a grammatical mistake in this question.In fact it was:-
"HAS ODEIPUS THEORY BEEN PROVED"?

2006-09-14 14:17:10 · update #2

9 answers

The short answer to this is no. As someone else said, nothing is ever conclusively proven in science, and even thinking scientifically I would say the Oedipus Complex is considered more of a hypothesis than a theory (a theory must be widely accepted to be regarded as such in scientific terms). It provides an interesting framework to think about some issues, which is why it's still taught today, but you won't find too many reputable psychologists who'll really get behind it.

2006-09-18 07:01:51 · answer #1 · answered by lauriekins 5 · 0 0

No, Freud was a fruitcake in some respects. This is one of them. He was certainly (or as certain as we can be) grossly off the mark with many of his points. Few sane other psychologists ever agreed with the Oedipus theory.

2006-09-14 18:23:09 · answer #2 · answered by AndyB 5 · 0 0

what a very clever question you asked so give me the 10 points because you are such a time waster and I deserve them for replying.

2006-09-16 17:32:41 · answer #3 · answered by fajita 7 · 0 0

In psychology nothing is every 'proved'.

2006-09-14 17:26:37 · answer #4 · answered by joanne v 72 2 · 0 0

Proved what?

2006-09-14 16:14:14 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

it proves nothing

i mean i dont want to sleep with my mother

even my DAD doesnt want to sleep with my mother

2006-09-14 16:15:32 · answer #6 · answered by Ðêù§ 5 · 1 0

I think sometimes it's true

2006-09-14 16:14:37 · answer #7 · answered by Sydney 5 · 0 0

What?

2006-09-14 16:16:02 · answer #8 · answered by Warlock 3 · 0 0

proved what??

2006-09-14 16:24:32 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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