2006-09-13 22:12:40 · 9 answers · asked by karenna m 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Because, the US - the *United* *States* is actually a union - a collection of bodies that all follow nation-wide (i.e. federal) law. The states follow federal law, but if something is not decreed by the federal government, the states are free to control it themselves. This is outlined specifically in the 10th amendment to the U.S. Constitution.
This is one of the things that made the U.S. so unique when it was first created. It allows for more flexible government, and if people want to live in different ways, they can easily move to a different states. Currently many gay couples who wish to marry move to Massachusetts, for example.
2006-09-13 22:17:41 · answer #1 · answered by std 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋
If you really look at the today's trends, it was not really what the forefathers wanted. States originally were independent sovereign entities that had broad powers to self govern and the federal government's main purpose was to establish an army to protect the individual colonies from invasion from the old world. The Constitution was develop in order to limit the governing powers of the new Federal government not to make it so the States could not self govern. However as time is passing the States are losing power and the Federal is gaining so either this trend will continue until again the people rise up against a non representative government or you will have a big brother single type State. Europe will probable follow the same path as the States due to the new EU and countries instead of states will start to lose their sovereignty.
2006-09-14 05:29:58 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
YeeHaa! above is correct. The 10th Amendment allows for it.
Basically, the original concept of the federal government was supposed to be one of limited enumerated powers, just enough to hold the country together. That changed over the first 150 years of the country, as the federal govt claimed more and more regulatory power. But the original model, where each state is sovereign within its own borders, still has some weight. And as long as the state laws do not actually conflict with federal laws, they are free to pass any laws that they want within the limits set by the Constitution. See also Article I Section 10.
2006-09-14 13:00:11 · answer #3 · answered by coragryph 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Why should towns have the ability to pass any laws regulating taxation education, parking, building, or smoking? This is a large diverse country, and what is true in Maine is not true in Mississippi. One of the successes of the United States is the ability for different regions to have laws reflecting their heritages.
2006-09-14 07:16:34 · answer #4 · answered by novangelis 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Because they are internally sovereign. Like Indian tribes they share sovereignty with the federal government.
It's part of constitutional law. The key word is subsidiarity, made popular in the context of the European Union. Things should be dealt with a the lowest practicable political level.
2006-09-14 05:23:40 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Because of Federalism. According to Amendment 10 of the Constitution's Bill of Rights:
The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people.
2006-09-14 05:16:33 · answer #6 · answered by Yee Haa! 2 · 2⤊ 1⤋
It's a good thing, they are allowed to express their freedom and make their own laws to suit their own conditiions as different states have different prevailing circumstances.
2006-09-14 05:47:52 · answer #7 · answered by realsmart3 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Government structure...
local
state
federal
many countries have similar set-ups.
2006-09-14 05:19:49 · answer #8 · answered by Tish-a-licious 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
democracy
2006-09-14 05:14:21 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋