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23 answers

yes

2006-09-13 19:40:43 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 3

No. If that were the case there would be some environmental factor that makes gay people gay, and straight people straight. There have been many studies done on this subject and none of them can find any environmental factors that can lead to a person becoming gay and not straight. The current theories point toward a combination of genetic factors and biological ineutero factors (meaning chemicals in the womb.) Freud had his theories, but most of them have been proved wrong by more modern methods than Freud had at his disposal. Freud was the father of psychology, not necessarily the best psychologist. Psychology, just like any school of thought, gets better with time. The originators might have been very brilliant people, but they didn't have the years of experience that we have today.

2006-09-13 20:08:13 · answer #2 · answered by ? 5 · 2 1

Whatever Freud said is neither here nor there. I am old school, a baby boomer. In the 50's and 60's all the psychological data and my experience was that "we played doctor" with both sexes. I came out hetero. Mothers and fathers today don't know much about human nature, not much about history of human nature. Parents today only know about what idiots like that guy on Oprah says or belive in drugging there kids. We all need a little slack so people be more tolerant. not everything from the past is bad or wrong. NOTE: IF YOU GOT PROBLEMS STAY THE HELL AWAY FROM PSYCHIATRY!

2014-06-12 16:36:27 · answer #3 · answered by dahszil 3 · 0 0

There is some validity in that.

We tend to work and play among people of the same sex.

Not many go beyond that and make a life with the opposite sex.

When you have found a true friend in a person of the opposite sex, then you are basically a heterosexual.

Doesn't happen for everyone. Sometimes people have dreams about finding that right person in the opposite sex with which they build a future of happiness and children and all that good stuff.

Life is full of strife and sometimes gets very difficult and bitter to endure. Many have found friends in the same sex.

Finding a true friend in the opposite sex is becoming more and more rare in these times. I guess I got lucky.

2006-09-13 19:46:08 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Well, I would definately have to question Freud's work, but I do think that most, if not all, people are born bi to some extent. Maybe you should take a look at some of Kinsey's work instead...

2006-09-14 04:02:05 · answer #5 · answered by carora13 6 · 2 0

Untrue. Freud said that homosexuality was a deviant condition and didn't recognize bisexuality. He also felt that it was a sign of undeveloped adolescent sexuality because it was just a phase that teenagers went through.

2006-09-13 22:00:48 · answer #6 · answered by cotterall&elaineadams 2 · 1 0

Freud had a screw unfastened. NO once you attain an age wherein your sexually lively, you're additionally sufficiently previous to be responsive to what you hit upon captivating, yet no longer mature sufficient to care approximately conforming. So, i think of if your involved in an identical intercourse, you will maximum incredibly act on it. I under no circumstances had an attraction to an identical intercourse. I acted on another stupid desire I had. have confidence me, If I have been bisexual, i could be responsive to roughly it. I had no limitations in any respect.

2016-11-07 07:12:48 · answer #7 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Breeze, I'm going to tell you the down-to-earth truth: Yes, I do believe we are hard-wired to be bisexual. I do think that there might be some biology (hormones) affecting our eventual orientation though and I definitely believe our social environment effects orientation development as well.

I believe most people (especially men) remain basically bisexual, whereas others become totally straight or totally homosexual in orientation.

I've lived too long, read too much, and interacted with far too many people to believe otherwise.

2006-09-13 23:50:59 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

It may very well be true. Most people have a specific preference for one gender over the other, but apparently not 100%.

2006-09-13 23:10:11 · answer #9 · answered by Ti 3 · 2 0

No absolutely not, Sigmund Freud was a fruit loop.

2006-09-13 19:44:36 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 4 1

For most of yes it is true. We can get sexual pleasure from either way. But to have childern you still need one female and one male at the right time.

2006-09-13 19:45:25 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

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