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Could you explain how to do it.

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x^2

2006-09-13 11:00:31 · 9 answers · asked by carolinacavs88 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

9 answers

Sure. I'll tell you a trick to make it all easier. Anything on the bottom of a fraction has a negative exponent. So 1/2 is the same is 2^(-1). So we can simplify your problem in steps that way:

1 / (1/x^2) = 1/ x^(-2) = x^2

2006-09-13 11:04:08 · answer #1 · answered by Doctor Why 7 · 0 0

That is the same as 1/1 over 1/x^2 and the rule is just to reverse the bottom and multiply by the top. So the answer is 1/1 times x^2/1 which is x^2.

2006-09-13 11:03:57 · answer #2 · answered by Barkley Hound 7 · 0 0

1 divided by (1 divided by xsquared) = 1/ (1/x^2) = 1 * the inverse of 1/x^2 = 1* (x^2/1)= 1*(x^2) = x^2.

2006-09-13 11:03:42 · answer #3 · answered by maegical 4 · 0 0

you recognize that x^2+(a million/2x)=a million bypass a million over to the left side of the equation first: x^2+a million/2x-a million=0 Use the quadratic formula to discover x: x= -b+/-SqrRoot(b^2-4ac)/2a x= -a million/2+/-SqrRoot(a million/4--a million)/2 x= -a million/2+/-SqrRoot(5/4)/2 x= -a million/2+SqrRoot(5/4)/2 or x= -a million/2-SqrRoot(5/4)/2 with any success, in case you do your calculations correct, you would possibly want to be in a position to plug this into your calculator for those 2 x values: this is going to = a million contained in the origional equation. I in basic terms said the different solutions: they are maximum suitable if (x^2+a million) is in brackets divided by employing 2x=a million; i develop into questioning that x^2 develop into by employing itself and plus (a million divided by employing 2x)=a million both way, plug on your solutions and they might want to equivalent a million.

2016-11-26 21:55:55 · answer #4 · answered by cootes 4 · 0 0

When you have a ratio in the denominator (in this case 1/x^2 is the denominator), you can move it to the numerator (top) position by flipping it up-side down. Therefore, the expression is equal to 1/x^2 flipped up-side-down, which is x^2.

Answer: x squared.

2006-09-13 11:07:03 · answer #5 · answered by ChicagoDude 3 · 0 0

x^2 since a/b divided by c/d is the same as a/b * d/c

2006-09-13 11:07:33 · answer #6 · answered by another newbie 2 · 0 0

you ask Y=1/(1/X²)

but you know
A/A = 1 per definition of the division
B*1=B per definition of the multiplication

so Y= (1 / (1/X²))
= (1 / (1/X²)) *1
= (1/ (1/X²)) *(X²/X²)
= X² * (1/(1/X²)) /X²
= (X²*1) / ((1/X²) *X²)
= (X²) / (X² * (1 /X²))
= X² / (X²/X²)
= X² /1
=X²

2006-09-13 11:09:14 · answer #7 · answered by cd4017 4 · 0 0

This is too easy - stop cutting class.

Multiply top and bottom by x^2 - there's your answer.

2006-09-13 11:01:54 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

put the website www.sparknotes.com into your web favorities.

2006-09-13 11:05:36 · answer #9 · answered by DexterLoxley 3 · 0 0

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