I'm writting a paper for class, on the play Oedipus Rex. I'm citing the part of the play where Tiersais, the blind oracle comes in and tells Oedipus that he (Oedipus) is.....
Blinder or More Blind
than Tiersais is.
(The rule for grammar is that if the adjective is one syllable, then you don't use the more, you just add the -er. But, isn't there a rule about being blind? Cause blinder doesn't sound like a word, and m-w.com doesn't have it in it's pages either....)
So, which would be the correct grammar usage? And for that matter, the above sentance, shouldn't it be written:
"... where Tiersais, ..., tells Oedipus that Oedipus is ( BLIND )than he."
Because Tiersais is the subject and therefor, he gets to be repalced by the pronoun 'he'.
Right?
Ugh... Thanks for you answers to this!
2006-09-13 10:32:41 · 16 answers · asked by lordjelly13 2 in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
More blind.
The rule about blind is the same as the rule about pregnant: you either are or you aren't. In those cases, if you DO choose to compare, you use "more" rather than "-er".
2006-09-13 11:36:16 · answer #1 · answered by Goddess of Grammar 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Blind - Blinder - Blindest is the right order.
The word, 'BLINDER' is the comparative form of 'BLIND' No second thoughts on it. Sometimes, people use 'more blind' than. That's just their choice but not the right one.
The confusion is because of the existence of another word, Blinder (used informally) that means something, which is excellent especially in sports.
This match is blinder of a game!
One syllable or two or multiple are for some guidance & not a rule.
What are the comparative form of ,say, 'tame'? It is 'tamer. Not more tame!
AUTHENTIC SOURCE: Oxford Advance Learner's Dictionary
2006-09-14 15:27:36 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
It's 'blinder' and the second variation of your sentence is wrong. It has to be 'blinder than he is' which is old English and thus more poetic, or 'blinder than him' (but that's not always right) or ' blinder than [insert name of person]'. And you could have easily looked that up in the dictionary. I know this was posted over a decade ago and the internet wasn't as versatile back then, but the library would have done it for you.
2017-01-08 00:04:42 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
What does the play say? Can't you quote it directly?
People, it's a *metaphor* (also Greek.) Tiresias is a seer--a visionary. He sees...but doesn't see. It's a pun! Geez, Words and Wordplay people ought to recognize a good pun. I'd say "more blind".
2006-09-13 13:00:11 · answer #4 · answered by SlowClap 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
where Tiesais tells Oedipus that he is more blind than he .
2006-09-13 10:52:31 · answer #5 · answered by Sunseaandair 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The correct usage is "more blind"; "blinder" is a noun
2006-09-13 11:55:09 · answer #6 · answered by ca_christopher1965 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
More Blind is the consensus. And I believe you are correct on that second draft of your sentence...
2006-09-13 11:27:10 · answer #7 · answered by alchemicalstann 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The correct answer is: more blind.
2006-09-13 10:35:32 · answer #8 · answered by ? 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Are you speaking about horse, or Stevie Wonder? Horse prefer "blinder". Stevie would like "more blind". I think.
2006-09-13 10:37:19 · answer #9 · answered by MrZ 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
yes , more blind is right
good luck
2006-09-13 10:35:35 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋