2006-09-13 00:58:51 · 4 answers · asked by HAPPY G 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
x.
2006-09-13 01:18:46 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'll assume that you mean whether the function f(x) = 1/x has an inverse, and incidentally, its inverse is the function itself because
f(f(x)) = f(1/x) = 1/(1/x) = x
As such, when plotting the function with an orthonormal basis, it has at least one line of symmetry, namely y = x. This is because graphically, the inverse of a function can be plotted by reflection along that line.
The plot has also a second line of symmetry: y = -x.
2006-09-13 08:08:19 · answer #2 · answered by sabrina_at_tc 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is its own inverse. The line y=x is the line of symmetry.
2006-09-13 09:17:19 · answer #3 · answered by bruinfan 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
63
2006-09-13 08:01:05 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋