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2006-09-12 16:56:47 · 14 answers · asked by ? 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

14 answers

If you have a 2 and bring up another 2, you have 22, not 4.
that way, 2 and 2 make 22

2006-09-12 16:59:40 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Suppose we have an arithmetic where we add 2 numbers
then divide the answer by 4 and take the remainder
for the sum. This is called mod 4 arithmetic.
In this arithmetic 2 + 2 = 0, not 4.
Also, 1 + 3 = 0.
Think of a clock with 4 numbers on it, 0, 1, 2 and 3
and a hand going round the clock. If the hand is
at 2 and advances 2 spaces, it will be at 0.

2006-09-13 11:48:33 · answer #2 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 0 0

2+ -2 =0

2006-09-13 00:05:24 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

HERE IS THE ANSWER:
When you are using a number system other than base 10. Say for example a base 3 system. In such a system numbering would go as follows: 0, 1, 2, 10, 11, 12, 20, 21, 22, 100,101, 102, and so on... The base 10 equivalents of theses are the numbers 0 to 11 in the order in which they are seen. In this system 2 + 2 = 11 (The base 10 equivalent of four, but not read as four). The answer depends on the base, you see. Hope this helps! (I also hope that no one above me steals my answer.)


Corrected for spelling and grammar. 9-16-2006

2006-09-13 00:08:16 · answer #4 · answered by Ben 3 · 1 0

ok look
thats how it works, let me picture an explanation.

u have 2 apples right then u mama gave u two more
but since u were hungry, u ate the two apples u had earlier before ur mama gave u two. so now u have total of 2 apples and it does not equal to 4.

u could also use the quadratic formula
-b/b^2-4ac / 2
b means hot boy aka me
a means awsome
c means chicks

so it should look like this

1/1-4(69)(69) / 2

what can i say im pimp
now u know why 2+2 does not equal 4

2006-09-13 00:09:59 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

according to mathematics 2+2=4. but in a society (similar to the society in Orwell's 1984) the government could simply say 2+2=5 and the people would beleive it because theres no proof otherwise.

2006-09-13 00:04:59 · answer #6 · answered by xi3reakeroi3cx 5 · 1 0

I think this is what you mean:
http://www.ahajokes.com/m017.html
Great mathmatecians like Fibonacci,Descartes, and Riemann have found that 2+2=5 and Gauss produced an arithmetic in which 2 + 2 = 3.

No one know why, buy recently, though, there have been reported computer-assisted proofs that 2 + 2 = 5, typically involving computers belonging to utility companies.

2006-09-13 00:24:31 · answer #7 · answered by Jeffrey B 1 · 1 0

2 halves plus 2 halves equal 2. It's a sophmoric argument! What type of 2 are you talking about?

2006-09-12 23:59:05 · answer #8 · answered by Bernard B 3 · 1 2

Maybe if one of the numbers is negative...otherwise it always would equal 4

2006-09-12 23:59:56 · answer #9 · answered by bookworm1885 2 · 0 1

Mostly it all depends on how you define '2', '+', and '4' ☺


Doug

2006-09-13 00:10:19 · answer #10 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 0 0

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