Certainly wasn't you.
2006-09-12 16:19:31
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Americanized English and British English are divergent branches of an evolutionary language tree. Up until the colonial times mostly the lower class spoke Middle English. They were not educated and thus their language was not that sophisticated. In turn, they lowered the bar during the 1600's when people began coming to America. The differences between the languages began there. Although, we hold some of the same words as them. For instance, went, like I went to the store is the past tense of wind (not air, long i) as in during my walk I while wind down the road.
In other words, my $5 is on England.
2006-09-12 16:17:58
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answer #2
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answered by David 2
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Of course the British! We are technically Britain's children who ran away.
2006-09-12 17:25:14
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answer #3
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answered by Redeemer 5
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It depends on on how you define English. If you mean Old English, it is closer to Saxon, so it would have been the Anglo-Saxons, who lived in England (aka, Angle-land) first. The Britons, or Bretons, came later.
2006-09-13 06:30:15
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answer #4
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answered by cross-stitch kelly 7
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You win!
English was spoken by the English people, who now live in what is called Britain.
2006-09-12 16:15:33
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answer #5
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answered by nora22000 7
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Not exactly positive, but my vote is with you on the british.
2006-09-12 17:12:58
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answer #6
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answered by knownothing 4
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Since we came here from England, you are obviously RIGHT!!!
2006-09-12 16:10:42
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answer #7
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answered by rudee 3
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you win
2006-09-12 16:07:33
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answer #8
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answered by mr. Bob 5
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you win.
2006-09-12 16:06:38
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answer #9
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answered by Ars Magica 5
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