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My European History textbook talks about Carolingians and Capetians. It starts with Charlemagne, emperor of the Holy Roman Empire. But later, while still talking about Charlemagne's successors, it mentions that they are the rulers of France.

I feel like I am missing a vital something distinguishing between the Holy Roman Empire and France. Please tell me where this change was made!

Also, were there two Holy Roman Empires? A friend told me that there was Otto's HRE and there was Charlemagne's HRE. Please help!

THANK YOU SO MUCH!

-A dumb history student :D

2006-09-12 15:52:18 · 1 answers · asked by Katy 2 in Education & Reference Homework Help

1 answers

Charlemange was the Holy Roman Emperor, for the WEST Roman Empire.

There was an EAST Roman Empire, with its own emperor, too.

And Charlemagne, being a Gaul, established the rough boundaries and cultural unit that later became France, while he was Holy Roman Emperor.

Good you noticed the sloppy explanations of the writers of your book! Keep up the good work!

2006-09-12 15:55:57 · answer #1 · answered by nora22000 7 · 0 0

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