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2006-09-12 14:56:29 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

I think it doesn't since it isn't a 1-1 function.....not sure about symmetry. HELP :(

2006-09-12 14:57:08 · update #1

3 answers

you are right -- no inverse

the line of symmetry is the vertical line x=0

this is an even function, f(-x) = f(x)

2006-09-12 15:04:06 · answer #1 · answered by oracle 5 · 1 0

No it doesn't have an inverse. Yes, the line of symmetry is the vertical line x=0.

2006-09-12 22:04:49 · answer #2 · answered by zee_prime 6 · 0 0

It is an even function and does not have an inverse.
It has even symmetry about x = 0.

2006-09-13 00:04:52 · answer #3 · answered by Stewart H 4 · 0 0

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