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14 answers

NO. NO. NO, because he never had an official at bat. Interestingly enough, he had 3 runs and an RBI due to his walks and being hit by a pitch. But because he went 0-0 the streak can continue.

This is from the official press release of the game:

"Jeter batted in each of the first four innings without getting an official at-bat: He had three walks and was hit by a pitch. He didn't bat again, and his career-high 21-game hitting streak remained intact. With three runs scored, he increased his total to 102 and broke 100 for the 10th time."

2006-09-12 15:03:05 · answer #1 · answered by Scooter 4 · 3 1

in case you ever took precalculus or another math type which covers houses of applications, you the way in which to be sure the area of the function. between the pink flags to look out for is once you divide by employing 0. on your expression, even as x = 3, the denominator is 0. to that end, the area is each and every variety beside 3. regrettably, the variety you attempt to plug in (x = 3) is the in basic terms variety that would not artwork in this function. to be sure this regular hand, you0 can graph this function on a TI-80 3. in case you zoom in on the point of the graph at x = 3, you'll discover there's a sparkling spot there! it fairly is because, as suggested above, there in basic terms isn't a cost of the expression at x = 3. you would possibly want to assert, nicely it feels like the answer might want to be 6, searching on the graph. this theory of what the answer "might want to be" is what limits are all about. The values of the function on the left and proper of x = 3 all bypass in the direction of 6 as you capture up with and closer. So we are saying the reduce as x is going to three is 6. So in spite of the actual undeniable reality that it's not technically the answer, 6 is your impressive determination. 0 in basic terms isn't maximum suitable in any experience. the very impressive answer is to assert that the expression is undefined at x = 3. This difficulty illustrates why 0/0 is termed indeterminate. in this difficulty, 0/0 in a fashion equals 6. the concept 0/0 can equivalent something is unquestionably the essence of calculus.

2016-11-26 20:34:50 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Yes, unfortunately it does end the streak. He walked three times, was hit by a pitch. He didn't get a hit because he never got the chance. And to show what a real team player he is, he did not protest when Torre took out all of the regulars during the blowout. He would have had another at-bat to extend his streak, but unlike Ortiz, stats don't mean that much to him. Give crybaby Ortiz the MVP, we know who the real MVP is.

2006-09-12 15:04:57 · answer #3 · answered by Jeffrey S 6 · 0 1

Good job "scooter" you got it exactly right, and saved me a few keystrokes! Yes Derek Jeter's 21 game hitting streak is still alive...

2006-09-12 15:50:38 · answer #4 · answered by jack 7 · 0 0

No; walks are not an "official" AB. 0 for 0 means he didn't exist in that game pretty much, unless his walk came with the bases loaded (he'd get an RBI) or he scored a run.

2006-09-12 16:51:28 · answer #5 · answered by omnislash7377 2 · 0 0

Nope. MLB Rule 10.24(a):

"A consecutive hitting streak shall not be terminated if the plate appearance results in a base on balls, hit batsman, defensive interference or a sacrifice bunt. A sacrifice fly shall terminate the streak."

2006-09-12 16:07:55 · answer #6 · answered by JerH1 7 · 1 0

no, you have to have an official at bat. 0-0 does not end a streak

2006-09-12 15:47:01 · answer #7 · answered by the greg 5 · 1 0

No. The rules say he had no official at-bats. So his streak continues.

2006-09-12 15:48:18 · answer #8 · answered by Ronnoc 3 · 0 0

no if he went 0 for 1 it would but it counts kinda like a missed game almost

2006-09-12 14:56:39 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

From what I heard today on ESPN, it appears his streak is still alive.

2006-09-13 02:43:50 · answer #10 · answered by smitty 7 · 0 0

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