And how is it possible that some options close at extremely low or negative implied volatilities? (This question doesn't really belong to the "investing" category...)
2006-09-12
13:31:13
·
3 answers
·
asked by
jarynth4
1
in
Business & Finance
➔ Investing
Okay, I still haven't understood the mathematical model completely. But it's possible for the implied volatility to go to zero, or close consistently below average. I noticed a few in-the-money options about to expire which could be bought and exercised at a net gain, i.e. with intrinsic value slightly larger than the premium. Is this weird? Some kind of trick? Why can't the option be bought and then sold at a fairer imp. volatility?
2006-09-12
13:46:09 ·
update #1