2006-09-12 08:06:45 · 5 answers · asked by enchanted 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
No idea, ask at the county seat and see, or ask an attorney versed in those matters.
2006-09-12 08:10:01 · answer #1 · answered by oklatom 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The purpose of recording is to give public notice of the transfer of and interests in real property within the recording statute's jurisdiction.
The deed is legally binding between the grantor and grantee; but will fail to give the requisite public notice. Failing to give that notice may allow others to record deeds or other instruments that would be superior to and impair the title of the grantee. In short, if you don't record the deed to your property in the right county you could end up losing it!
So, the solution is to re-record the deed in the correct county asap. While you will have to pay another recording fee you should not have to pay the transfer taxes again if they are shown to have been paid on the face of the deed or by receipt. The county property recorder will understand. This kind of thing happens from time to time.
2006-09-12 11:56:18 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It may not be an "illegal", deed but it is improper registration.
I can't imagine a county having permitted the filing from another county. I don't see how they can collect taxes on the property.
You need to have that corrected. Check with your own County Seat, and they may advise you.
2006-09-12 08:16:51 · answer #3 · answered by ed 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Ask your County Attorney
2006-09-12 08:13:21 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
i think it is
2006-09-12 08:09:14 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋