2006-09-12 04:26:36 · 4 answers · asked by lmorrelltaxes 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Normally, unless the judge's decision states a specific time, the original statute of limitations governing the underlying claim is the controlling limit.
2006-09-12 04:29:40 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Why would the plaintiff move for a dismissal? The plaintiff is the one bringing the case.
It's the defendant who would ask for a motion to dismiss, either with or without prejudice (usually if the plaintiff fails to appear).
On a side note, if a plaintiff fails to prove his case before the court, the defendant can request a directed verdict, which is essentially a victory for the defendant without the defendant having to state his case.
2006-09-12 13:31:32 · answer #2 · answered by Dewhitewolf 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Once a case is dismissed without prejudice, it is as if were never filed originally (with respect to those issues).
So, the timeline remains the same as it was before -- whatever the appropriate statute of limitations is based on the type of claim.
2006-09-12 12:30:14 · answer #3 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Once in awhile we do
2006-09-15 18:13:37 · answer #4 · answered by Pokie 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋