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6 answers

I will begin by assuming you are aware of the original language of the "Code of Hammurabi" (Akkadian, specifically the 'Old Babylonian' dialect) which others have mentioned.

In that case, I must take it that you ran across the word "seignior" in a translation of the "Code", and are asking about the etymology of the English (translated) word. If so, you are correct that all the words you mention go back to the same Latin word, "senior", meaning "older".

Thus, "sir" comes from "sire", for which the etymology is:

"Middle English, from Old French, from Vulgar Latin *seior, from Latin senior, older, comparative of senex, old"
http://www.thefreedictionary.com/sir
http://www.thefreedictionary.com/sire

"Monsieur" comes through the French, but from the same root (with the addition of "mon" = "my") --

"French, from Old French : mon, my (from Latin meum; see me-1 in Indo-European roots) + sieur, lord, sir (from Vulgar Latin *seiorem; see sire"
http://www.thefreedictionary.com/monsieur

seignior-
Middle English segnour, from Old French seignor, from Vulgar Latin *senior, from Latin, older, comparative of senex,
http://www.thefreedictionary.com/seignior

señor --
Spanish, from Old Spanish sennor, from Vulgar Latin *senior, lord, from Latin, senior
http://www.thefreedictionary.com/señor
---------------
As for the Akkadian original:

Dan is mistaken about Indo-European -- Akkadian is indeed a Semitic language [as are Hebrew, Aramaic, Arabic, etc] but this language family is NOT Indo-European, and the word some translate as "seignior" has no etymological relationship to it.

The Akkadian word in this case is "awilum", which refers to a "man of rank". The word literally means "man", but specificallly refers to a citizen who owns land in his own right (hence "seignior" or "lord", that is, one who owns an estate is a fair translation)
http://www.reference-wordsmith.com/cgi-bin/lookup.cgi?exact=1&terms=awilum

2006-09-10 16:06:39 · answer #1 · answered by bruhaha 7 · 1 0

As another person has stated, the code of Hammurabi was written in a language that was completely different from English, French and Spanish. The word "seignor" that you are referring to is in a translation of the Code of Hammurabi. It is not the word that is present in the actual Code.

2006-09-09 22:51:59 · answer #2 · answered by Ronald J 1 · 0 0

The Code of Hammurabi was written in the Akkadian language, which is a member of the Semitic group of languages. And that language group is a member of the Indo-European family of languages. The primarily written religious language, Sanskrit is an ancient example of an old Indo-European language. The Code's text is written in Cuneiform script. Most European languages are members of this group of languages too. A lot of European language words come distantly from Sanskrit.
D.

2006-09-10 00:22:05 · answer #3 · answered by Dan S 6 · 1 1

What does Hammurabi have to do with those names? It was written in a language that didn't have any of those words in it.

2006-09-09 22:41:01 · answer #4 · answered by Rich Z 7 · 0 0

Yes.

2006-09-09 22:42:12 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

They all have the same root as 'senior'.

2006-09-09 23:21:00 · answer #6 · answered by poorcocoboiboi 6 · 0 0

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