I've just had an offer accepted on a house in England, I want to move in ASAP so I don't have to keep paying rent on the flat I'm in at the moment but I'm the bottom of a chain. Can I ask the current owners of the house I've bought to move out so I can move in? Is that out of order?
2006-09-09 06:29:34 · 19 answers · asked by MooMoo 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Renting & Real Estate
You can ask, but they may not. No harm there though.
2006-09-09 06:31:55 · answer #1 · answered by Chris D 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You can make your offer conditional on the current owners moving out by a certain date. However they do not have to accept this offer if they feel they can get as good a price without the additional demand of moving sooner. If you have already concluded the transaction and there is no date in the contract, then it's too late to negotiate a date - but you can of course ask nicely!
This is just the law of supply and demand working. Presumably there were more than one bidders on this house, so the sellers were able to set the terms to their advantage. Now that they have chosen you, you cannot renegotiate the terms after the contract is signed.
2006-09-09 06:34:01 · answer #2 · answered by ribordoli 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Before I clicked on your question for the rest of the story, all I saw was:
Is it out of order to ask current owners to move out so I can move in?
My first thought was:
Isn't that what the Americans did with the Indians?
To answer your question: The current owners don't have to vacate their house until ownership is acaually transferred to the new owner, at least over here in the U.S. You might be able to work something out with them, though. It wouldn't hurt to ask.
2006-09-09 06:37:00 · answer #3 · answered by johntadams3 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
In the United States you can. If the owners agree to move out all you have to do is strike a buyer's occupancy agreement which is then used as an exhibit and amendment to the original accepted offer to purchase.
2006-09-09 06:32:23 · answer #4 · answered by newmexicorealestateforms 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hey, I don't live in UK, but shouldn't you have included that in your conditions of purchase? --I'll buy your house for an amount of money, subject to your immediately vacating the premises?
Here in the US owners who sell generally expect to move upon close of escrow unless the purchaser agrees to let them remain.
Your customs and laws may vary. Or maybe you've belately decided you want to move in. Do you have an agreement with the seller that you now want to break?
In my area, new landlords often pay tenants to move out expeditiously.
2006-09-09 06:41:05 · answer #5 · answered by ronw 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I don't know England laws but when you closed (signed all the papers to purchase your home) a date to take possession should have been discussed and agreed upon at that time.
If this was not done, talk to your attorney. Perhaps he can mail them a letter indicating your preference of when you want to take possession.
2006-09-13 18:05:40 · answer #6 · answered by Ann H 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He might want to provide you with a month's word before increasing lease or having you bypass. So if he informed you in the present day you've till Aug a million on the former cost. he's not allowed to close off your utilities. call the water employer and tell them what he did. in case you may want to get the water on your call make sure they examine the meter before and after and get it out of your call as you go away.
2016-11-25 22:11:12 · answer #7 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it's out of order to have the current owners to move out. there's a period of time to the current owners to move out. it's called the closing costs. just be patient and wait. the time will come for u to move in ur new home.
It's also rude to do so.
2006-09-15 18:57:28 · answer #8 · answered by deb2rule 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You can try, but you'd have to add it to a contract and sign and have that new contract accepted. Otherwise neither of you will have legal rights in the issue. you'd have to pay them rent until the closing.
2006-09-09 06:32:20 · answer #9 · answered by amosunknown 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I dont believe it's out of order, but you may want to read the laws or consult an attorney just to make sure you do things properly.
2006-09-15 14:20:47 · answer #10 · answered by msjuliet2005 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If they have not signed, no. If the sale contract has been signed, yes. Unless it was stipulated how long they could remain. Read your contract and if immediate reliquishment is specified, do a stop payment, or void contract.
...jj
2006-09-16 09:01:50 · answer #11 · answered by johnny j 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋