2006-09-08 21:14:16 · 9 answers · asked by Put_ya_mitts_up 4 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Yes. Equality is symmetric, ergo ∀(a, b), if a=b then b=a.
2006-09-08 21:17:38 · answer #1 · answered by Pascal 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Of course yes !!!
If expression 1 equals to expression 2,
then expression 2 must equal to expression 1.
Here expression 1 is SineA/a whereas
expression 2 is SineB/b. So they must be equal
to each other.
Whether which one come first and which one come second is NOT important.
You know???
2006-09-09 05:39:49 · answer #2 · answered by Jack 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, it is the reflexive property of equality.
But if by "Sine Rules" you mean "Law of Sines" and you meant to write:
"...Sin(A)/a = Sin(B)/b...but...Sin(b)/B = Sin(a)/A"
then the answer is no. you can only take sine of an angle not a length.
extra: More specifically, you can only take the sine, cosine, tangent etc. of a dimensionless quantity.
2006-09-09 05:08:16 · answer #3 · answered by cp_exit_105 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not too sure, but isn't it the same equation? Seems like you just changed sides. I mean, if you start with B instead of A, you should get this.
2006-09-09 04:17:38 · answer #4 · answered by astrokid 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if, x = y then y = x, this is equality theorem.
Now it does not matter if x and y are any variable, be it Sine, or Cosine. As long as x = y; y must be equal to x, y = x.
2006-09-09 04:45:14 · answer #5 · answered by M1976 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
we can always say that but as A comes before B we say the above.
It is proper to follow certain guide lines otherwise there shall be confusion.
2006-09-09 04:32:28 · answer #6 · answered by Mein Hoon Na 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Ofcorse YES!
2006-09-09 07:55:11 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes.
2006-09-09 07:47:28 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yeah it is they same. Its like 4x2=8 and 2x4=8.
2006-09-09 04:19:46 · answer #9 · answered by dm_overton 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋