I know gay men who have had sex with women, some who even have kids. I'm confused. To me the term gay means you are only attracted to men. If you were able to get an erection over a woman wouldn't that make you bisexual? Obviously some part of these guys I know who call themselves 'gay' were attracted to females or they would not have been able to have sex with one. I don't think most straight guys would be able to achieve an erection in order to have sex with another man, or am I wrong?
2006-09-08 20:38:33 · 20 answers · asked by ? 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender
Ok you said I'm wrong so you are saying that most straight men can achieve and erection from another male if in a sexual situation? So then most men are bisexual. I was right
2006-09-08 20:41:33 · update #1
There is a difference between who one finds attractive and who one chooses to have sex with. I know many people who felt that if they didn't have a wife and kids, they would be disappointing their families or their deity. These men forced themselves to sleep with women they were not attracted to, because they felt ashamed of their attraction to other men.
The specifics of sexual attraction and identity are really very odd. Kinsey found out long ago that what sexual orientation one identifies as (heterosexual, bisexual, homosexual) doesn't always correspond to what gender of people one chooses to have sex with, which isn't always even the same as the type of one is attracted to.
It's confusing.
When stimulated, most men will achieve an erection, even if they aren't attracted to the person stimulating them. Men don't have full mental control over their bodies, and so cannot always choose when they want, or don't want, an erection.
~AJ~
~AJ~
2006-09-08 20:48:19 · answer #1 · answered by WatersMoon110 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Well alot of Gay men who have children and are married to women are really gay. While they have sex with the woman, they could be pretending it was a male. Mind power is very strong. It only takes once to get prego. Some men don't come out because they want children so bad. Its hard for two gay men to adopt.
2006-09-09 03:43:06 · answer #2 · answered by Tiffany G 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, a guy can get an erection from a thought. If he is gay and is having sex with a women he may being imagining that he is having sex with a man. Do you ever really know what a guy is thinking when he is having sex?
2006-09-09 03:43:36 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
That is true. Though I know a guy who I have sex with who can only get it up for his wife and that's only with a little anal play with him first. I, on the other hand, can not get any erection with a naked woman. I find it rather gross to be honest. I fall into the 100% gay catagory. I think that there are many degrees of str8/gay. It is not like you either are or aren't.
2006-09-09 04:56:50 · answer #4 · answered by closetcoon_fan 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I had a friend who calls himself a bisexual. But his love life had only boyfriends and he was never interested in women. I asked him why he considers himself bisexual and he says it is because he is sexually capable towards women.
I still call him gay and he still calls himself bi and we both don't mind. Its only a term :)
I think a guy can have erection to anyone as long as he is potent and not repelled.
2006-09-09 03:54:33 · answer #5 · answered by Ttraveller 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I'm not surprised anymore by anything like that. Sometimes, of course, these guys you mentioned are bisexual and they've fooled their wives, girlfriends, and others. Yet I have to tell you, there are guys who are married and tell you they are "gay" and not bisexual. It could be that they did not fully accept their true sexuality until after they were married. You see a lot of these guys among divorced men.
2006-09-09 04:46:10 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
firstly the one who has sex with guys and women are bisexual.
Some straight guys do get erection even when they are not gay for another guy and some don't.similiarly some women like to get or be toched by a women and some don't.simple!
2006-09-09 03:44:11 · answer #7 · answered by Dipi s 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Sexual functioning has little to do with preference. I knew a teenage boy who would get an erection for no real reason in math class. Did this make him a mathsexual?
Sorry you use faulty logic and a bad premise to begin with, your thought-lines are flawed and without merit.
2006-09-09 08:06:16 · answer #8 · answered by IndyT- For Da Ben Dan 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
due to our societal ignorance and predjustices against homosexuality many homosexuals (especially men) not only hide their homosexuality from the world but from themselves as well.
i think its very common for homosexual men to be in hetero relationships and even have sex and kids, because regardless of their feelings they try to convince themselves they are hetero.
as far as straight guys being able to have sex with men, i dont think any man would EVER admit to "experiementing" with homosexuality, yet women admit to it on a regular basis. how many times do girls experiement with another girl but those are isolated incidents in their sexual history and they go on to enjoy a long life of heterosexuality?
2006-09-09 03:44:48 · answer #9 · answered by daughters_a_wookie 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I would call them by but I guess that depends did they have this sex with a woman in order to try and fit in or keep from getting disowned by there family that would be dif.
2006-09-09 03:43:52 · answer #10 · answered by dydy 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋