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x (x-1) ^2

would it be 0 and 1?
an explanation would be helpful and thanks for your help.

2006-09-08 16:34:12 · 11 answers · asked by shih rips 6 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

11 answers

assuming the equation = y
x intercept is when the x value = 0
so that answer is 0 and 1 but 1 is a double x intercept
since (x-1)^2 = (x-1)*(x-1)
and since the arguments (x, x-1) are multiplying each other all you need to find the x intercept is when one of the arguements = 0
if x=1 x-1 = xero you have your intercept
if x=0 then you have your intercept

but important to know that 1 is a double x intercept.

2006-09-08 16:48:00 · answer #1 · answered by applejacks 3 · 0 0

Yes, the x-intercept is (x, 0).
With f(x) = y = x(x-1)^2, y = 0 when x = 0 or
x = 1.
So, the x-intercepts are 0 and 1.

2006-09-08 16:52:29 · answer #2 · answered by numberone 1 · 0 0

The question should state what are the x-intercepts because there are two. You get an x-intercept anywhere the equation equals 0. With this equation x=1 and x=0 both satisfy that condition since 1(1-1)^2=0 and 0(x-1)^2=0.

2006-09-08 16:47:46 · answer #3 · answered by Dr. Joe 2 · 0 1

it would be 1

2006-09-08 21:41:09 · answer #4 · answered by Lutchie Marie G 1 · 0 0

The x-intercepts are found by solving for y=0
The x-intercepts are the "roots" of the equation and in this case, there are two.

y=x(x-1)^2
set y equal to 0
0=x(x-1)^2

root #1: 0=0(0-1)^2=0
root #2: 0=1(1-1)^2=0

so: x-intercepts x=0 and x=1

2006-09-08 16:43:40 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Both.

A linear equation (ax+b=y) will only have 1 x intercept and 1 y intercept, but x(x-1)^2 is not linear so it can have multiple x intercepts. But all functions will only have 1 y intercept.

2006-09-08 16:38:23 · answer #6 · answered by sparrowhawk 4 · 0 0

(ax+b=y) will only have 1 x intercept and 1 y intercept, but x(x-1)^2 is not linear so it can have multiple x intercepts.

Does your math teacher know about this???

2006-09-08 17:13:13 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

x intercerpt is the value when function f(x) =0
in this case
f(x) = x(x-1)^2 =0
=> x = 0,1,1
so the x intercept is 0 and 1 both

2006-09-08 17:51:11 · answer #8 · answered by Mein Hoon Na 7 · 0 0

x(x-1)^2..........First take each term and put it equal to zero.......so u have x=0.....(x-1)^2=0.....the first one is already given to u.......x=0.........now look at the second one....square root both sides......so u have x-1=0....and now add one to both sides which will give u x=1......so over all x=0,1

2006-09-08 17:46:42 · answer #9 · answered by superstar 2 · 0 0

Yes

x(x - 1)^2 = 0

x(x - 1)(x - 1) = 0

x = 0 or 1

2006-09-08 17:13:01 · answer #10 · answered by Sherman81 6 · 0 0

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