2006-09-08 05:17:28 · 15 answers · asked by Emily P 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Homework Help
Yes. In that time, the language was the modern day language.
The thing is, people from that time would find our modern english strage and difficult to understand.
2006-09-08 06:25:02 · answer #1 · answered by Mark R 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. I am sure some of the phrases were similar. The topics were that of the age. Shakespeare took many liberities with the language. There are some instances where language and phrases that are use common today first appear in one of Shakespeare's writing. Remember it's poetry. It designed to play with language and make you think about word usage and it's meanings
2006-09-08 05:21:32 · answer #2 · answered by limgrn_maria 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Language has changed a lot over the centuries. Elizabethan people would have used similar phraseology to the 'commoners' in Shakespeare's plays. Obviously they wouldn't go around using elaborate metaphors and speaking in iambic pentameter in everday conversation.
2006-09-08 06:04:10 · answer #3 · answered by Fluorescent 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, Shakespeare spoke just like his fellow citizens in England at the time.
2006-09-08 05:20:08 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
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2016-04-23 14:56:35 · answer #5 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Verily!
He wrote his plays for the common man to see. If he had written them in a way they would not have understood, nobody would have seen them, so he would not have been able to make a very profitable living out of writing plays!
Just as today, plays - and the modern equivalent for the masses, films - are written in a language that people understand.
2006-09-10 08:23:57 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends on what you mean.
If you had given examples, or some idea of what you're really asking about, people could answer.
Do you mean "Did they speak in poetry?" Then, no.
Are you referring to particular dialects, then, yes, or at least most of them.
He coined many words, and ways of using words, and phrases, so those weren't used until he coined them.
So, what, exactly, did you have in mind?
2006-09-08 05:26:58 · answer #7 · answered by tehabwa 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
yes, Shakespeare wrote in the vernacular of the time, in fact it's really very good English grammar, when English had correct grammar, with full declension of verbs.
2006-09-08 05:44:01 · answer #8 · answered by mike-from-spain 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not realy. Those were just plays. In 100 years to come do you think people will be asking wheter we used to speak like the rappers P D and company. Them a come; them a see; me gona kick them ................. No No No No!!!!
2006-09-08 09:03:36 · answer #9 · answered by cool runings 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Of course not! In the plays it was poetry, in real life they don't speak in poetry!
The way people did speak was different to now. In the plays the way they spoke was emphasised, such as now in Little Britain. I mean, no one really says, "yeah but, no but, yeah but, no but, yeah but, no but, yeah but, no but, yeah but, no but," do they?
2006-09-08 05:31:02 · answer #10 · answered by Emily 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋