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If, for example, a genetic defect is present in both the human and chimpanzee gene pool, and both species can consequently suffer from the same medical disorder, that would prove beyond any reasonable doubt that the defect arose in a common ancestor of the two species and was inherited by both - i.e. it would prove that humans and chimpanzees are related by common descent.

Do we have evidence of such disorders?

2006-09-08 04:28:05 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Biology

Fermi: Excellent and well-supported answer, thank you.

2006-09-08 13:47:43 · update #1

cleeps: I take your point but the underlying genetics involved in two widely separated species will be completely different - it's not a common mutation resulting in flight for both species.

2006-09-08 13:49:12 · update #2

4 answers

How about a predisposition to cancer? Here's a study by researchers who find that a particular mutation is not present in other animals but is present in only humans, great apes, and chimpanzees. They even find that humans have a form that great apes do not have, and that humans and great apes share a form that chimpanzees do not have, and that all three share forms which no other animals have.

http://pubs.nrc-cnrc.gc.ca/rp/rppdf/g04-085.pdf

While this is evidence in support of common ancestry, this is not iron-clad proof. It is known that some parasites and diseases can, in the process of infecting hosts of different species, transfer DNA from one species to another. Because humans and other primates share enough characteristics to make us common hosts to a variety of such pests, there is at least one alternative explanation for shared DNA curiousities such as these.

Even that explanation fails to account for the other 99% of DNA that we share with some primates, however, so Occam's razor would seem to suggest common ancestry as the most reasonable conclusion, as you suggest. It would be nice if there were iron-clad evidence to stop some of the silly debates out there, but I think we'll just have to make due with a vast preponderance of evidence! ( :

2006-09-08 07:10:25 · answer #1 · answered by Doctor Why 7 · 1 0

It does not prove that.
Not just apes and monkeys have diseases that we have, many different animals can get different disseases. and if we are all from common descent, why can't it be that ALL animals have it that came from a certain species? if a bird gets a disease, all birds after can have it right? hmmm, it sounds like each generation would just get sicker and sicker.

And if God exists, why cannot both creatures have the same genetics for the disease to take hold? we are all the same in some way. So when a creature with the same kind of genetics in this area are affected, all other creatures with that might also. how does it prove anything?

2006-09-08 17:14:54 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Maybe, but it's possible that the mutation randomly occured in the two species.

I mean, both bugs and birds fly, but they don't have an immediate ancestry. (If you go back far enough, I think we're all related.) Their flying is a result of two separate mutations.

2006-09-08 09:12:38 · answer #3 · answered by cleeps 5 · 0 0

it would were effective in case you had reported the position you gained your incorrect information. Sibling species which contain those discovered contained in the fly family individuals Drosophilidae precisely in positive condition your description; they have similar morphology and percentage straight forward genetic traits yet are unable to interbreed and convey fertile offspring. different sibling species are discovered between the birds.

2016-11-06 21:52:32 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

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