The factorial is a function. A function can have the same value when evaluated at two different points, that is f(a)=f(b) does NOT imply that a=b.
2006-09-08 04:32:36
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answer #1
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answered by Dr. Joe 2
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4^0=1
7^0=1
Therefore 4=7
2*0=0
5.5*0=0
Therefore 2=5.5
In other words, just because you're doing the same operation to both numbers and the result is the same doesn't mean the original numbers are the same. Some operations just don't work that way.
2006-09-08 04:25:35
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Uh, you can't just remove the factorial from 0! = 1!
Like 3^2 = (-3)^2, but 3 isn't equal to -3. Same with !'s.
2006-09-08 04:26:11
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answer #3
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answered by rahidz2003 6
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Don't take the equeations reverse. 1^2(1 square) is also 1 and (-1)^2 is also 1.
1^2 = (-1)^2. You can't just simply remove ^2 from here. such are the other functions including factorial function.
2006-09-08 05:03:01
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answer #4
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answered by Boom Boom 1
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HEY U JACKASS!!!!!!!
FACTORIAL CALCULATION STARTS FROM 1,NOT FROM 0
SO 1!=1
2!=1*2=2
AND SO ON
PLZ TELL ME WHO THE HELL TOLD U
0!=1???????
ALSO 1!=1
BECAUSE IF THERE IS NOTHING LESS THAN ONE ,THAN IT IS ITSELF
AND IF U SAY 0!=1,THEN FACTORIAL 1! NOT EQUAL TO ONE!!!!!!!
SAME WILL GO FOR OTHER NOS ALSO!!!!
SO THATS UNTRUE , ILLOGICAL AND NOT ACCEPTED
EMAIL UR PROBLEMS TO
professortheta@ilovemath.com
2006-09-09 05:04:30
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Just because there is a fact saying that all human beings are principally equal doesn't make you equal to George Bush or Sadaam Hussein or Dr Manmohan SIngh. Similar logic follows in Maths too, idiot?
2006-09-08 04:34:00
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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That it's stupid. 0!=1!=1 as per your premise. What are you trying to do, divide by ! ? That doesn't work.
2006-09-08 04:27:05
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answer #7
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answered by Goddess of Grammar 7
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Then I guess the basis of ! is 1!@
2006-09-08 04:29:02
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answer #8
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answered by nswblue 6
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U r weak in maths.
2006-09-08 04:38:19
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answer #9
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answered by abc 2
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You dont know math.
2006-09-08 04:25:46
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answer #10
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answered by A 4
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