Can you explain what this text means in simply sentences?

Question

I'm not god in English, can you explain me on simply English, Macedonian, Serbian or Greeks. Thank you:
In some of my messages, I have pointed out that the children of Japheth mostly settled in Asia. As part of those messages I have pointed out that the name of one of Japheth's sons, "Javan," (Genesis 10:2) is closely
replicated in such modern Asian place-names such as "Java" (an island in
Indonesia) and "Japan." There is additional biblical evidence that modern
Japan descends from Javan, but I need to discuss some background
information to place it in proper context.
In Ezekiel 38, there is a prophecy that a group of Asian nations (Russia,
China, Iran, etc.) will attack the nations of the tribes of Israel in "the
latter days." Attacking nations named Gomer, Magog, Meshech, Tubal and
Togarmah are all descendants of Japheth (Genesis 10:2-3). It is clear that
it is the latter-day descendants of the house of Israel which are targeted
by this attack as the named alliance of gentile nations

What does this have to do with Javan? Ezekiel 38:13 lists "the merchants
of Tarshish" and "the young lions thereof" as gentile nations who do NOT
attack the modern nations of the house of Israel. Indeed, they question
why the other gentile nations are doing so.
Tarshish is one of the sons of Javan (Genesis 10:4), and Tarshish is
prophesied to be a "nation of merchants" in the latter-days. Japan has
often been called "Japan, Inc." because of its merchant-based economy which
is tied closely to the USA's and the Western World's economies (which are
dominated by the modern tribes of Israel). Tarshish's mercantile example
will be copied by other smaller nations called "the young lions thereof."
The world's financial press has long called the nations of South Korea,
Singapore, the Philippines, Thailand, Taiwan, etc. the "young tiger"
nations. The prophetic descriptions of Tarshish (a son of Javan) and other
nations as being aggressive, even predatory marketers--(hence the imagery
of merchant

Answer 1

Yes I can it means :-Bulls**t,Bulls**t,Bulls**t,Bulls**t,Bulls**t,Bulls**t,Bulls**t,Bulls**t,
Bulls**t,Bulls**t,Bulls**t,Bulls**t,Bulls**t,Bulls**t,Bulls**t,Bulls**t,.......... Ad Nauseum. The End. Amen.

Answer 2

First, when the original writers penned the words of the images or inclinations that produced those prophetic works, they were trying to describe what they saw in terms of what they knew. It would be the same as if someone from a thousand years ago were trying to describe the Internet or a variety of other things we see and know today. It was hard for them to say then and it is harder for us to guess now, but some guesses can be pretty accurate the closer they are to the Middle East where some things have changed the least.

Second, don't worry about the specifics of this people or that are mentioned. Many of the names are from the early divisions of people after the descendants of Noah and are scattered broadly about. People move, people intermingle, people adapt and adopt cultures. God knows and he gives us hints. Just know that when the dust all settles we will look back and say, "Wow, I never would have guessed but you were right."

Answer 3

In a word, Yes. The nation of Israel was refounded on May 14,1948 To fullfil this prophecy. In the End days, This War will be God's Final Defense of Israel. After this Amazing Defeat, The Nations of the world will sign a peace treaty with Israel. It will not last.

Answer 4

If Jesus intended to take the title of "I Am," he would have said something like, 'Before Abraham lived, I was the I Am.' As it stands, converting the "am" into a proper noun leaves the sentence without any sort of modifying verb for the pronoun. That is why John 8:58 in most translations is mere gibberish, unless you imagine that Jesus suddenly started speaking in some sort of Ebonics. If the concocted title of "I Am" at John 8:58 is simply another name of God, then we ought to be able to substitute the word God or Jehovah and get the same sense. So, read the verse in question substituting "I Am" with God and what do you get? The NIV would read: "Before Abraham was born, God." You don't have to be a Greek scholar to appreciate that the translation of ego eimi as "I Am" to determine that the context of the verse, Jesus was simply asked about his past. New Topic: ego eimi present tense The blind man in the very next chapter of John (9:9) says "Ego Eimi" with respect to himself. Was the blind man admitting that he was Jehovah? clearly not. So what did Jesus mean when he said "Ego Eimi" in reference to "Before Abraham came into existence?" Many references show this simply to be the greek grammar of the present perfective. In other words, an action that started in the past AND CONTINUES TO THE PRESENT. This is the reason for the present tense. The action expressed in John 8:58 started "before Abraham came into existence" and is still in progress. In such situation (eimi), which is the first-person singular present indicative, is properly translated by the perfect indicative (have ...). Examples of the same syntax: (John 15:27) because YOU have been (present tense) with me from when I began. (Acts 15:21) For from ancient times Moses has had (present tense) in city after city those who preach him..." Concerning this construction, A Grammar of the Idiom of the New Testament, by G. B. Winer, seventh edition, Andover, 1897, p. 267, says: "Sometimes the Present includes also a past tense (Mdv. 108), viz. when the verb expresses a state which commenced at an earlier period but still continues,-a state in its duration; as, John 15:27 [ap? arkhes' met? emou' este'], John 8:58 [prinAbraam' gene'sthai ego' eimi]."

Answer 5

Kalimera. Then pirahzi. Yati theleess aftoh?